serp777
Well-Known Member
Uh huh.
Why would what religious people mostly agree enter into it?
The point of the argument is to show that if there is a God, He couldn't possibly be both omnipotent and omni-benevolent.
Where it fails, IMO, is in it's dependence on the idea of some sort of pre-established, objective definition of evil.
I don't believe there is one. IMO, all morality is subjective.
If there is an omnipotent God, He/She/It wouldn't be subject to anything, therefore subjectivity doesn't apply.
In order to make the PoE work, you would have to come up with an example of evil that wasn't subjective.
Well I actually agree 100% that morality is completely relative. However, I guess i'm really just addressing this to people in the Abrahamic faiths who do believe that God is real and has an absolute morality. Its based on the assumption that there is actually an absolute standard of morality even if we cna't define it.
You're right in that it doesn't apply to a deistic God--one that is above human morality and finds it petty. The flaw in Epicurus' argument is that he doesn't specify the God he's talking about. Nevertheless I think my argument which focuses on the abrahamic faiths is fair since I don't really know of any abrahamic faiths where God doesn't have an absolute standard of morality. I mean maybe some do but the majority I assert would . So yeah the argument does have some flaws but I think it highlights problems with the abrahamic faiths particularly with regards to morality. So the argument does not apply to God.
If God is real and has an absolute standard of morality with respect to the abrahamic faiths, then evil would be the negation of God's absolute morality. I of course couldn't give an example since I couldn't know the mind of God. However my main question for you is why god wouldn't be subject to anything. Isn't he subject to our free will and choices?