From your answer, I have no idea what your thoughts are on whether or not punishment is infinitive, which is what the OP is asking.
First, we need to consider what "sin" as
I understand it actually means.
"Sin must be redefined as deliberate disloyalty to Deity. There are degrees of disloyalty: the partial loyalty of
indecision; the divided loyalty of
confliction; the dying loyalty of
indifference; and the death of loyalty exhibited in
devotion to godless ideals."
"Although conscious and wholehearted identification with evil (sin)
is the equivalent of nonexistence (annihilation), there must always intervene between the time of such personal identification with sin and the execution of the penalty—the automatic result of such a willful embrace of evil—a period of time of sufficient length to allow for such an adjudication of such an individual’s universe status as will prove entirely satisfactory to all related universe personalities, and which will be so fair and just as to win the approval of the sinner himself.
But if this universe rebel against the reality of truth and goodness refuses to approve the verdict, and if the guilty one knows in his heart the justice of his condemnation but refuses to make such confession, then must the execution of sentence be delayed in accordance with the discretion of the Ancients of Days. And the Ancients of Days refuse to annihilate any being until all moral values and all spiritual realities are extinct, both in the evildoer and in all related supporters and possible sympathizers." UB 1988
So, by the individual's final decision, finitive sins eventually become infinitive in final judgment, hence "the wages of sins is death". NOT eternal hell torment but annihilation!