You mean like the origin of Poodles from the same stock of wolves?
Remember that time on CF when you went off on a tangent about the origin of dog breeds and you foolishly linked and cherry-pick quoted a paper that you claimed supported your position on a recent, in-population origin for all dogs? But then I pointed out that the same paper made clear they were referring only to dogs in England (or western Europe) and it mentioned that there were several other populations of dogs from elsewhere that provided admixture? And that dog origins were much older than you had insisted? That was hilarious.
Don’t blame me because you can’t understand the original wolf type creatures had all 100 plus dog variations possible within them,
Now remind me where you provided evidence for this miracle genome that works in ways contrary to what we know about genomes? It seems to have slipped my mind.
We can identify pseudogenes and mutated TEs because enough of their sequence remains intact to see sequence identity with more intact versions.
Thus, it should be a piece of cake for you to find many examples of original Wolf-kind alleles that have been degraded via mutation (which you claim does not exist... or something) in dog genomes.
Can't wait!
but you can’t get but a few from Poodles due to mutations and loss of information.....
The mutations that create new alleles you mean? Like is indicated in the Grant paper that you keep quoting for some reason?
Don’t blame me because every Asian born has over 100 mutations every birth, but remain Asian
Wow - 100? You know that amounts to a whopping 0.000003% of the genome, right? and how many of those 100 are in genes that affect superficial phenotype?
You must know in order to use this as an argument, right?
Until you mix them with an African (who is also born with those 100 mutations yet remains African) that hasn’t lost the same information the Asian lost. Then you get an Afro Asian......
Afro-Asian? Cool.
So - where did the original Asian and the original African come from? I mean, genetically, since they somehow had the correct alleles, they both had to have been around before the fake flood - but it was only like 10 generations between Adam and Eve (the clones) and Noah, and that whole line was a bunch of inbreds, so where did the originals come from?
From your oft-quoted (but apparently never read or understood) Grant paper:
" Despite the low production of hybrids, by 2007, over 30% of the population of
G. scandens possessed alleles whose origin could be traced back to
G. fortis.
The two populations had become more similar to each other morphologically and genetically..."
Sort of blows the whole Asians arose via hybridization (between which populations? He never says) thing out of the water - hybridization, according to justa's own citation, DECREASES variation, it does not create it.
Oh my bad, mutation was your Only solution because you started from the wrong worldview.....
Right, that must be it.
Weird, though, that in my worldview I do not cite a source that explicitly indicates that new alleles arise via mutation to claim that they don't.
Maybe I am just not a desperate religious fanatic with a giant ego and a complete lack of relevant knowledge.