sandandfoam
Veteran Member
The Principle of Sufficient Reason is that nothing is true that has no sufficient explanation.I am unfamiliar with the work of Kant, or the Principle of Sufficient Reason. Would you care to explain this further?
Leibniz put it forward with The Principle of Contradiction (which is that a proposition and its negation cannot both be true) to derive a view of the world that is perspectiveless. He argued that reality is only available to reason because only reason can get above an individual point of view and that the real nature of the world cannot be gained from any point of view.
Kant argues that reason alone leads to illusion, reason must be based in experience. He goes further again and argues that some knowledge, a priori knowledge, is not based in experience (Eg.- my knowledge that 'The world consists of enduring objects which exist independently of me' is not based in experience). This is the sensible intuition referred to in the(my) first post.
The Principle of Sufficient reason only works with 'relation to sensible intuition' using his 'transcendental' method that relates the object of knowledge to the 'capacity of the knower'
In relation to your post that I first adressed my point is that Kant shows that objectivity is necessarily rooted in subjective experience and subjective knowing, so to dismiss experience is incorrect, even a priori knowledge is based in my experience of it as true.
As I said in my earlier post I am not sure that I understand Kant correctly as it is quite heavy going and I'm reading and discussing his ideas for the first time. If any or all of what I've understood him to have said is flawed I'd appreciate if any who are familiar with his ideas point it out.