Do you want to say that it's a mutation of the genes to pronounce words differently from language to language or have totally unrelated languages?
Once again, it is an
analogy. No, there are not changes in the genes producing differences in languages.
But that isn't the point of the analogy. The point of the analogy is that there can be gradual change with no clear boundaries that leads to large scale changes over many generations.
And, in
that it is a good analogy. During biological evolution, the genes in a population change gradually over time with no clear boundaries between species leading to large scale changes after many generations.
The 'species barrier' is just as real as the 'language barrier'. And, historically, languages shift and become new languages. Analogously, species shift and become new species. Languages can split and become more than one language from a single parent language. Analogously, species can split and become more than one species from a single parent species.
Do you understand that we are suggesting an analogy here?
I'd love to hear you opinion.
Others have said things like going from hunters-gatherers to farming and building tools as if that is part of evolutionary change almost as if it's genetic.
Who has claimed those changes as genetic? What I have seen is people saying that since there were anatomically modern humans before civilization, the development of writing, for example, is NOT genetic. Exactly the opposite of what you seem to think we said.
It is YOU that has suggested that writing, for example, was a distinguishing difference between humans and chimps. Our point is that difference is NOT genetic. It isn't biological. It is purely social. The genetic changes for humans had happened long, long before writing (or even art, as far as we can tell) developed.
When medical advances make better machines and methods, that is not what I consider to be biological evolution.
No, it is not. And nobody said it is.