When I was younger, mid to late teen, I used to read it and took it at face value, and when I did have questions with the narratives, I was given Christian or church interpretations, so often I read it from the churches’ perspectives, and never questions the churches’ views.
But since 2000 (I was 34 then), where I became increasingly agnostic, I tried to read from the perspective of the author, the Old Testament from Jewish perspective and the New Testament from Christian perspective. At that time, I was working on Timeless Myths website (from 1999 to 2019), where I gained experiences from cross-checking and verifying what I read from multiple sources and multiple translations.
From my other website Dark Mirrors Of Heaven (2016-2019,
Dark Mirrors Of The Heavens), I did research on multiple sources (eg Masoretic Text, Septuagint, Samaritan Torah, Vulgate, Dead Sea Scrolls, Apocrypha, Pseudepigrapha (eg Book of Jubilees, the Enochian books), Nag Hammadi codices (Gnosticism), rabbinic literature (eg Midrash, Aggadah, etc), with their multiple translations (eg KJV, NRSV, NJPS, NETS, etc).
Btw. Note that I have been having money trouble of late, couldn’t afford to pay for web hosting, so I was forced to sell both website plus my domain name (
www.timelessmyths.com), to an Italian buyer. I am still listed as the original creator and they have the contents intact, but they did a facelift on how it look.
Anyway, since becoming agnostic, I have to read the Old Testament, I have to read from Jewish perspective instead of Christian perspective.
One of the reasons why I became agnostic, was due to my disagreement with Matthew 1:23 when I compared against Isaiah 7:14. I no longer believe Isaiah 7:14 to be Messianic prophecy, and viewed Matthew 1:23 as Christian propaganda.
When I first read both passages independently from the KJV, I was 15, so I was young and inexperienced, and didn’t do any researching and cross-referencing, didn’t compare the 2 passages together. I had believed that Matthew 1:23 was about Mary and Jesus.
But because of my time with working on Timeless Myths, I have learned to cross-reference different passages, verify the sources. I see it now, that Isaiah’s original sign had nothing to do with the messianic prophecy, and nothing to do with Mary and Jesus.
I have also learned that the KJV, normally used and translated the Old Testament with the Masoretic Text as primary source, but in the cases where OT passages delved with Christian version of the messianic signs, the KJV translations often switched to Greek sources, eg the Septuagint or whatever Greek translations that the gospel author had used back then.
So the Hebrew almah or more precisely hā·‘al·māh “the young woman”, became Greek parthenos παρθένος “virgin”.
If you read the whole chapter, especially 7:14-17, as well as the next chapter (Isaiah 8:1-4), you will see that the sign had to do with the war Ahaz had against Pekah of Israel and the Aram Rezin of Damascus, and the sign had to do with the Assyrian intervention.
According to Jews, Isaiah’s original sign had nothing to do with the messiah, nothing to do with the Virgin Mary and Jesus.
From I see at Isaiah 8, the sign is very similar in tone, which means, we know the identity of Immanuel, to be Isaiah’s son Maher-shalal-hash-baz...therefore the unnamed pregnant “young woman” in Isaiah 7:14 is most likely Isaiah’s own wife.
This is the complete sign, here from KJV translation:
Now compared with New Jewish Society Publication (NJPS), 1985:
NJPS used only the Masoretic Text as it’s source, while the KJV jump to Greek LXX source only for verse 14, but back to the Hebrew Masoretic Text for verses 15, 16 & 17. Why would KJV translators to do that.
Below, is the translation from the Dead Sea Scrolls:
(Sources:
Tanakh: The Holy Scriptures, 1985, Jewish Society Publication.
Martin Abegg Jr, Peter Flint & Eugene Ulrich,
The Dead Sea Scrolls Bible, 2002, Harper.)
Given that who ever wrote the Gospel of Matthew (1:22-23), quoting and interpreting Isaiah’s passage, BUT omitting 3 original verses that are vital in understanding the sign, I don’t trust any NT author citing from the OT.
Both the newer translations provide more accurate contexts to the original, translating the young woman already being pregnant, so it cannot be Mary:
“...the young woman is with child and about to give birth to a son.“ (NJPS)
“the young woman has conceived and is bearing a son” (DSSB)
As I read other New Testament signs, I came to see that gospels are cherry picking supposed Messianic signs, that weren’t Messianic in Jewish sources.
There huge differences between Jewish and Christian perspectives.