So some 2,300 years and no New Song. I wonder if to Sing a New Song is the same as to Recite a New Revelation?
History shows the people of Ishmael's Son Kedar ra sung a New Song some 1,400 years ago:
...
and he will defeat his enemies.
Here are all the times "new song" appears in Tanach.
Psa. 33:3 "Sing to G-d a new song, play (as in a musical instrument) well with shouts..."
Psa 40:4 "And He put in my mouth a new son, praise to our G-d..."
Psa. 96:1 "Sing to G-d a new song; sing to G-d, the whole land..."
Psa. 98:1 "A psalm. Sing to G-d a new song. for He has done wonders..."
Psa 144:9 "G-d, a new song I will sing to you, on a lute of ten..."
Psa.149:1 "Sing to G-d a new song, His praise in a congregation of pious..."
As you may know, the Book of Psalms is a book of songs. A psalm is a liturgical poem. So now let's look at Isaiah 42 with the understanding that he refers to an actual song:
Sing to G-d a new song,
His praise from the ends of the earth
Descend-ers to the sea and [those who] fill it
Islands and their inhabitants <<<<< Different places people live: mainland, sea, island
Raise up [their voices] desert and it's cities <<<<< more places where people live: deserts
Villages [where] Kedar inhabits, <<<<< people that live in desert
Cry out, dwellers of Sela <<<<< people that live on mountain
From the top of mountains they shall shout <<<<< more places where people live: mountains
In both these verses, different verb related to "singing" are used: sing, raise up, cry out, shout. Because there will come a day where all these places will sing to G-d in praise, raise up their voices in song to G-d in praise, cry out to G-d in songs of praise, shout out to G-d in songs of praise. This has not yet happened.
Sela, the mountain in Medinah, is never identified in the Tanach. Sela the mountain of Edom
is. Your interpretation as the mountain in Medina is self-serving. Kedar is identified with Ishmael and Sela is identified with Esau. We find other places where the children of Ishmael and Esau are singled out among the nations:
Deut. 33:2 "And he said, 'G-d, from Sinai comes; He shone from Se'ir to them, He appeared from Mt. Paran..."
Se'ir is where Esau lived (Gen. 36:8). Mt Paran is where Ishmael lived (Gen. 21:21)
The time for the inhabitants in the settlements of Kedar to be climbing Mountains and crying out in joy has long past.
Apparently it has not.
I've shown it's very possible, and you yourself started by claiming it referred to many prophets, yet could only agree on one name, Joshua pbuh, and I showed 34:10 excluded him. So now you are forced to accept you haven't received a Prophet in almost 2500 years! For this reason your Scholars have suggested Balaam a non Jewish Prophet, yet Muhammad pbuh fits the prophecy like a glove.
No, you are confusing many different things over here. I named one prophet, Joshua, as an example. All the prophets following Joshua also fulfill this passage. Joshua is just an example, because he's the first one.
Deut. 34:1 does not exclude Joshua because 34:10 is only saying that there has never been a prophet in Israel
who knew G-d face to face as Moses did. Not that there has never been another prophet in Israel. All other prophets spoke to G-d less directly than did Moses. The Rabbis understand from the qualifier "in Israel" that there
was a prophet who was not from Israel who spoke to G-d with some degree of similarity that Moses had and identify him as Balaam. This is completely unrelated to what we're talking about, because we're not discussing the degree of prophetic revelation.
Lastly, the entire passage itself explains to some extent why we don't have prophets now and I kind of alluded to that before, but it seems you didn't catch it, so I will spell it out:
The passage begins in chapter 18 verse 9. There we are told that when we go into Israel there will be various types of diviners and soothsayers. These are methods of obtaining information about the future and they are prohibited to us probably because of their relation to idolatry. However, to make up for not being able to obtain information about the future, G-d explains that He will provide us with prophets. Prophecy is another way of obtaining information about the future and it is permitted to us. We are told that G-d will send us prophets from among the Jewish people and we must listen to them. That's chapter 18 from verse 9 until the end in a nutshell.
And that's exactly what happened: from the time we went into Israel, we had prophets. Prophecy ended with the last prophets to have been born before the
exile out of Israel. By the time we came back to the country,
diviners and soothsayers are no longer an issue and in fact, during the entire Second Temple, there is no mention of any type of idolatry by the nation. We have already left the country, while the promise was for when we go into the country and we no longer need an alternative to diviners and soothsayers. Hence this passage is no longer relevant.
Muhammad doesn't fit this prophecy as I've continuously explained: he is not from among the Jewish people and he contradicts the prophecy of Moses.
Jewish Law = opinions of Jewish Scholars.
Though you couldn't care less, the Qur'an admonishes Jews ....
That's right.
What does your Torah say....
Genesis 17:9 Then God said to Abraham, “Now, this is your part of the agreement: You and all your descendants will obey my agreement. 10 This is my agreement that all of you must obey. This is the agreement between me and you and all your descendants. Every male must be circumcised. 11 You will cut the skin to show that you follow the agreement between me and you. 12 When the baby boy is eight days old, you will circumcise him. Every boy born among your people and every boy who is a slave of your people must be circumcised. 13 So every baby boy in your nation will be circumcised. Every boy who is born from your family or bought as a slave will be circumcised. 14 Abraham, this is the agreement between you and me: Any male who is not circumcised will be cut off from his people[d] because he has broken my agreement.”
At this point Abraham pbuh only had One Son, His First Born Ishmael pbuh...
22 After God finished talking with Abraham, God went up into heaven.23 Then Abraham gathered together Ishmael and all the slaves born in his house. He also gathered all the slaves he had bought. Every man and boy in Abraham’s house was gathered together, and they were all circumcised. Abraham circumcised them that day, just as God had told him to do.
24 Abraham was 99 years old when he was circumcised. 25 And Ishmael, his son, was 13 years old when he was circumcised. 26 Abraham and his son were circumcised on the same day. 27 Also, on that day all the men in Abraham’s house were circumcised. All the slaves born in his house and all the slaves he had bought were circumcised.
Any descendant of Ishmael pbuh would have kept the Law and obeyed the religion of their Grandfather, despite what 'Jewish' Law had to say on the matter.
No, circumcision and the Law are two different things. Abraham was commanded in this chapter to circumcise himself and all of his descendants. 17:10 specifies a specific covenant between G-d and Abraham's children: the covenant of circumcision. Let's get the exact words:
v. 10 "This is My covenant that you shall keep, between Me and between you and between your seed after you: circumcise for you, the flesh of your males"
v. 11 "And you shall circumcise the flesh of your foreskin, and it shall be a sign between Me and between you.
v. 12 "And 8 days old you shall circumcise for yourself every male, for generations, [those] born to the house and bought with money from every stranger who is not from your seed."
v. 13 "Circumcise those born of your house and bought of money. And my covenant shall be in your flesh for an eternal covenant."
So Abraham is commanded to circumcise himself, to circumcise his seed, to circumcise the members of his household and to circumcise his slaves.
So let's see where Ishmael falls:
Gen. 21:12 "And G-d said to Abraham...Because in Isaac will be called your seed"
Apparently, Abraham shouldn't be worried about sending Ishmael out of his house, because according to G-d, Ishmael is not considered Abraham's seed. If Ishmael is not Abraham's seed, then Ishmael is only getting circumcised because he was born to Abraham's household. Ishmael's children were not, so they have no such command to be circumcised and would not have done so.
According to Maimonides, only Ishmael was excluded through Gen. 21:12 since he was the topic. Therefore the children of Keturah were not excluded and would have had to circumcise their children. Other opinions argue. But it's pretty clear from the actual text that at lease Ishmael's children were not included.
34:10-12 has been posted, and you can see no mention of speech impediment, being born to a father named Amran pbuh or any of the other red herrings you mentioned.
Deut. 34:10-12 is completely unrelated to 18:9-22 as I keep pointing out. Chapter 34 is talking about the degree of prophecy Moses attained. Chapter 18 is talking about the existence of prophets after Moses. These are two different subject.
Please, Moses pbuh was telling the Israelites about what would come in the future. If GOD had intended Moses pbuh to live a very long life and continue to receive revelation, He could have done just that. Moses pbuh is making it plain and clear, a Prophet like him would arise from amongst their brethren in the future. In the meantime Moses pbuh anointed Joshua pbuh and he led the Israelites.
You're contradicting yourself. First you said that the nation not wanting to be addressed directly includes every individual. I point out to you that Moses is an individual within the nation of Israel. If the passage is meant to include every individual, than it should include Moses as well. Now you realize that the passage can't include every individual. It excludes all the prophets.
I should also point out the prophets living during Moses time:
Aaron, Miriam, Joshua, Eldad, Meidad and an additional 70 unnamed Elders. That's a minimum of 75 exclusions. That's why I explained that the nation as a whole, the laymen, requested that G-d not prophecy directly to them. However, there were other individuals, leaders who were already prepared for prophecy or who would one day be prepared for prophecy, who were not included.
Feel free to start a thread comparing preservation of Torah vs Qur'an.
There is nothing you can say. Without an actual scroll from Moses, you can't prove that the Torah we have today is not the one that Moses wrote. All you can do is prove that there were different versions, not that we don't have the authentic version.
Which commentaries say, 34:10 means a Prophet that God spoke to face to face is the criteria used to explain what 'like' Moses pbuh means?
This is very frustrating.
Verse 34:10 says, "There has not arisen another prophet in Israel
like Moses who
knew G-d face to face"
The commentaries on this verse explain that there has never been another prophet in Israel who
knew G-d face to face,
like Moses did.
Moses knew G-d face to face. There has never been another Jewish prophet who knew G-d that way.
You said that "34:10 shows no prophet rose like him, and ancient commentaries show never again in Israel did a Prophet like Moses pbuh appear."
I was explaining to you that it's a specific facet of Moses' prophecy that the commentaries are saying was never seen again in Israel. That was his ability to "know G-d face to face".