This is prophetic perfect tense. It has already happened, and it is happening in the future, it happens in eternal time. Jesus is always the high priest.
Not when he was a baby. He became a high priest on his crucifixion, when the temple veil was rent in twain. Then he made the sacrifice of himself, when he had been made perfect.
Heb 5:9 - And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him.
His sacrifice was made perfect by his sufferings.
Exo 12:5 - Your lamb shall be
without blemish, a male of the first year: ye shall take
it out from the sheep, or from the goats
Because he was always, as a result of his fulfillment of prophecy. This cannot and will not be changed. However, as I will later discuss, the traditions themselves change.
I'm not joining anyone. I'm going to explain my thinking here, and you can decide yourself where I belong.
Read what I said again.
Instead, Jesus had to show them that likewise,
while he hadn't abolished the law and the prophets, they had moved beyond such things into
direct communion with God. How to show that? Show what God truly looks like (but God has no fixed form so...).
Jesus clearly says that he does not come to abolish the law and the prophets but to fulfill them. He fulfills them. So fulfilled. Now, in about three of the four gospels, they mention that the curtain of the temple is torn when Jesus dies. This is significant. The curtain keeps it so only the high priest can enter into the presence of God, as mentioned here.
What was the significance of the temple veil being torn in two when Jesus died?
What do you think happens when there is no such veil? It means that those Jews who wish can enter directly into the presence of God. Now the temple falls after about 50 years, so it is safe to say that the Jews did not get the memo. But the disciples would surely have understood the significance. To say that it was possible to see Jesus exactly as he was is an understatement.
It was a
tradition that the High Priest was male.
It was the "law" that the High Priest was male. The law is not a "tradition." There is custom and there is law. They are not the same thing.
Moreover Jesus is the antitype of the passover lamb, which the law again decreed was to be male.
But in Egypt there were Pharaohs (despite technically being possible to be a female Pharaoh) who were female yet acted as male. Hatshepsut being example #1, but Twosret also did the whole fake beard thing on carved depictions. So, let's get into Acts now, and talk about how will these traditions held up. Peter sees a dream about eating unclean meats, and being horrified at the process, but God tells him to eat anyway. We thereafter have Gentiles being converted, even those who did not become circumcised, one of the holiest commandments to be clean with God. Jesus during his ministry frequently breaks the Sabbath, considering healing as part of
pikuach nefesh, forgives sins himself, and tells people that he and the father are one (blasphemy! Except, you know, he quotes scripture that shows all are sons of God (
John 10:31-34 )).
The Jews have a peculiar aversion to anyone being termed a son of God other than a regular human being, even though the angelic interpretation of the term is found in the OT.
Jesus only broke with the traditions of the Pharisees, not the law of God, which allows good to be done on the Sabbath.
It's not about breaking tradition for its own sake. It's about superseding the rudiments of the law with the higher principles of the law. You can only break the law if you can show a higher principle that allows you to. Thus justification by works was superseded by justification by faith.
Several times after the resurrection, it is impressed up us that Jesus is in a different form, that the disciples (or Mary) did not recognize Jesus. In fact, so different is he, that Mary assumes he's the gardener.
I accept it. Yet he retained his body, as the nail marks in his hands showed.
And at another point, Jesus says "whenever you (helped/did not help) the least of these, you did so for me."
There is nothing, besides tradition, preventing Jesus after the resurrection from appearing however.
He only appeared before he was raised to the right hand of God.
Jn 20:17 "Do not hold on to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father."
After he returned to his Father he was never seen again.
In this day and age, even among Jews, among the rabbis (for there are no high priests after the temple) there are women. If this is so among the Jews, how much more so can the High Priest be a male, female, trans-lady, angel, or space alien. Our High Priest is the beggar on the street, the least of these, but also the greatest, the ruler of a country (
Romans 13:1).
Our high priest is Jesus. The apostate Jews don't count as any authority in Christianity. In the church of satan, the high priest can be anyone. Christians only have one high priest, who is frequently refered to as the passover lamb, that was male. There is, as Paul says, no gender-bending in the church of God. The distinction between the sexes is not a "tradition" that has been superseded in respect of inter-personal relations. This does not mean that there can't be prophetesses etc as that was always allowed, as the spirit is given to M+F.
So the OT law has a special status and can only be superseded by higher divine law, not displaced entirely. Incidentally, the clean/unclean distinctions (cf. Peter's dream) were superseded to allow the gospel to be given to the Gentiles, so that
all men could be saved. That also is OT law cf. the promise to Abraham. "and through your offspring
all nations on earth will be
blessed" Gen 22:18.
I suppose you could say in respect Rev saying that "all" believers are priests, that it applies to M + F and I would agree, but that is separate from the high priest. A priest is a servant of God. So I'll grant priest-status to F + M (not inferring anything as to eligility for the role of presbyter which is another issue), but not high priest status.