sojourner
Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
Ya, it kinda does.This is to drill even deeper than the historic Christian theology. It doesn't contradict the historic theology anyway.
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Ya, it kinda does.This is to drill even deeper than the historic Christian theology. It doesn't contradict the historic theology anyway.
...we should fulfill these laws, and not ignore a single "iota" or "dot" from these laws.
But if that is true, how is it that Christians don't follow all the laws that the Jews do. How is it that they don't do the Sabbath, that they don't keep Kosher, or let the earth rest every 7 years?
Also another thing I was thinking to myself. If we know the Messiah needs to be a descendant of King David, how could it be that Jesus was both a descendant of David, and the son of God.
Again, this is not meant in disrespect, Just honest curiosity as to how your scholars have interpreted these issues.
Our church rests on Sunday - Sunday instead of Saturday is in observance of the resurrection of Jesus, the celebration of a new era. On Sundays we do not shop, or do work. (For some, like doctors, or police etc. etc. this is not possible, so they choose a different day of the week to hold as their Sabbath)Gen. 3:15 (Rom. 16:20) her seed ... shall bruise thy head
Gen. 49:10 sceptre ... until Shiloh come
Gen. 49:24 (D&C 50:44) from thence is the shepherd, the stone of Israel
Num. 24:17 there shall come a Star out of Jacob
Deut. 18:15 (Acts 7:37; 3 Ne. 20:23) raise up unto thee a Prophet
Ps. 2:7 (2:12) Thou art my Son: this day have I begotten thee
Ps. 22:1 my God, why hast thou forsaken me
Ps. 22:16 they pierced my hands and my feet
Ps. 24:10 Who is this King of glory
Ps. 34:20 He keepeth all his bones: not one of them is broken
Ps. 68:18 thou hast led captivity captive
Ps. 69:9 zeal of thine house hath eaten me up
Ps. 69:21 (Matt. 27:34, 48) in my thirst they gave me vinegar to drink
Ps. 110:4 priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek
Ps. 118:22 (Matt. 21:42; Jacob 4:15) stone which the builders refused is become the head
Ps. 132:17 make the horn of David to bud
Isa. 7:14 (Matt. 1:23; 2 Ne. 17:14) a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son ... Immanuel
Isa. 9:6 (2 Ne. 19:6) unto us a child is born
Isa. 11:1 (2 Ne. 21:1) there shall come forth a rod out of the stem of Jesse
Isa. 25:9 this is our God: we have waited for him
Isa. 28:16 I lay in Zion for a foundation a stone
Isa. 40:3 Prepare ye the way of the Lord
Isa. 42:7 To open the blind eyes, to bring out the prisoners
Isa. 50:6 I gave my back to the smiters, and my cheeks
Isa. 53:5 (Mosiah 14:5) he was wounded for our transgressions
Isa. 59:20 Redeemer shall come to Zion
Isa. 61:1 anointed me to preach good tidings
Jer. 23:5 (33:15) raise unto David a righteous Branch
Ezek. 37:12 (Matt. 27:52) I will open your graves
Dan. 9:24 to make reconciliation for iniquity
Dan. 9:26 shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself
Hosea 11:1 (Matt. 2:15) I loved him, and called my son out of Egypt
Hosea 13:14 I will redeem them from death
Jonah 2:6 (2:2–9) Thou brought up my life from corruption
Micah 5:2 (Matt. 2:6) Bethlehem ... out of thee shall he come forth unto me
Hab. 3:13 thou wentest forth for the salvation of thy people
Zech. 3:8 (6:12) I will bring forth my servant the BRANCH
Zech. 9:9 thy King cometh unto thee ... riding upon an ***
Zech. 11:13 I was prised at ... thirty pieces of silver
Zech. 13:6 I was wounded in the house of my friends
Only if you cherry-pick.
Love is unconditional.
Please note the questions I ask here are not meant to be disrespectful, I am just trying to understand a few things that seem illogical to me.
I have stumbled upon the following few verses, and they confuse me.
Basically, my question to you is this.
After reading these verses, it is pretty clear that Jesus agrees that the Old Testament is the true word of God. He goes even further and says that we should fulfill these laws, and not ignore a single "iota" or "dot" from these laws.
But if that is true, how is it that Christians don't follow all the laws that the Jews do. How is it that they don't do the Sabbath, that they don't keep Kosher, or let the earth rest every 7 years?
Also another thing I was thinking to myself. If we know the Messiah needs to be a descendant of King David, how could it be that Jesus was both a descendant of David, and the son of God.
Again, this is not meant in disrespect, Just honest curiosity as to how your scholars have interpreted these issues.
Mary was a descendant of King David, and was Jesus' adopted father - so either way, he was a descendant of David. Here are other prophecies that Jesus fulfilled:
I don't see how. No nookie, no adultery.Only problem with what you said here is that for Jesus to actually be the Messiah, he would have to accomplish all the prophecies. I am sure you agree with this...
These prophecies come from the Tanakh, and the Tanakh only, since it is the only divine knowledge we have from before his birth. In the Tanakh, it never mentions genealogical trees and descendants using the mother. The Divine word only uses the father when it comes to this. It says, in Hebrew, "Lebeit Avotam", not "Lebeit Imotam". So it doesn't really matter who Mary is a descendant of, as long as the father was a descendant of David. Adoptive parents don't count either according to the Tanakh. We both agree that God cannot be and is not a descendant of David, and therefore, using simple knowledge, we see that there is an issue in your theory of him being either the Messiah, or the product of the Holy Spirit.
Also, in the ten commandments, it is given to us to not commit adultery. In your theory of God being the father of Jesus, while Mary was married with Joseph, God would have to have commit adultery.
Only problem with what you said here is that for Jesus to actually be the Messiah, he would have to accomplish all the prophecies. I am sure you agree with this...
These prophecies come from the Tanakh, and the Tanakh only, since it is the only divine knowledge we have from before his birth. In the Tanakh, it never mentions genealogical trees and descendants using the mother. The Divine word only uses the father when it comes to this. It says, in Hebrew, "Lebeit Avotam", not "Lebeit Imotam". So it doesn't really matter who Mary is a descendant of, as long as the father was a descendant of David. Adoptive parents don't count either according to the Tanakh. We both agree that God cannot be and is not a descendant of David, and therefore, using simple knowledge, we see that there is an issue in your theory of him being either the Messiah, or the product of the Holy Spirit.
23 And Jesus himself began to be about bthirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of cJoseph, which was the son of Heli,
24 Which was the son of Matthat, which was the son of Levi, which was the son of Melchi, which was the son of Janna, which was the son of Joseph,
...31 Which was the son of Melea, which was the son of Menan, which was the son of Mattatha, which was the son of Nathan, which was the son of David,
...37 Which was the son of Mathusala, which was the son of Enoch, which was the son of Jared, which was the son of Maleleel, which was the son of Cainan,
38 Which was the ason of Enos, which was the son of Seth, which was the son of Adam, which was the son of God.
(New Testament | Luke 3:23 - 38)
Also, in the ten commandments, it is given to us to not commit adultery. In your theory of God being the father of Jesus, while Mary was married with Joseph, God would have to have commit adultery.
Basically, my question to you is this.
After reading these verses, it is pretty clear that Jesus agrees that the Old Testament is the true word of God. He goes even further and says that we should fulfill these laws, and not ignore a single "iota" or "dot" from these laws.
But if that is true, how is it that Christians don't follow all the laws that the Jews do. How is it that they don't do the Sabbath, that they don't keep Kosher, or let the earth rest every 7 years?
Also another thing I was thinking to myself. If we know the Messiah needs to be a descendant of King David, how could it be that Jesus was both a descendant of David, and the son of God.
didn´t Jesus say do not make impure what God has made pure? Didn´t he said it is not what comes to the mouth what makes a man impure, but what goes out of it?
He contradicted the law more than once.
Jesus rightly stated that the things we eat do not make us 'impure'... its the things we say and do that make us impure. The dietary restrictions of the mosaic law certainly had health benefits... even some parts of the 'clean' animals were not allowed to be eaten. Eating the fat of sheep or cow was restricted, but you could still eat the animals flesh itself. This could be an indicator that the foods classed as 'unclean' were unhealthy to eat.
i wouldnt say Jesus is contradicting the mosaic law here for the reason that he is speaking about a persons conduct, actions and words.... the dietary restrictions of the law were more likely to promote a persons physical health.
But he encouraged his disciple to eat it. Then he encouraged someone to break the law. Then you cannot say he was 100% for every law.
Sure, he said he was, but he was often contradictory when you take him by word value. Mystics are rarely consistent when measured by words alone, as if the words were binding contracts. You have to try and understand the meaning behind. As we can see, we would have to believe he was a liar or did purposefully wrong given that he encouraged others to break the law about food, unless of course , we understand we cannot take it as word value.
Please note the questions I ask here are not meant to be disrespectful, I am just trying to understand a few things that seem illogical to me.
I have stumbled upon the following few verses, and they confuse me.
Basically, my question to you is this.
After reading these verses, it is pretty clear that Jesus agrees that the Old Testament is the true word of God. He goes even further and says that we should fulfill these laws, and not ignore a single "iota" or "dot" from these laws.
But if that is true, how is it that Christians don't follow all the laws that the Jews do. How is it that they don't do the Sabbath, that they don't keep Kosher, or let the earth rest every 7 years?
Also another thing I was thinking to myself. If we know the Messiah needs to be a descendant of King David, how could it be that Jesus was both a descendant of David, and the son of God.
Again, this is not meant in disrespect, Just honest curiosity as to how your scholars have interpreted these issues.
the context really helps to settle any misconception... Jesus is speaking about a persons motives & heart when he says that, "what we eat does not make us impure, but what we say, does".
the mosaic law restricted certain foods, but not because those foods can defile a persons motives or heart condition. The figurative heart is not affected by foods. Let me put it this way, a wicked person does not become righteous by eating 'clean' foods. And that is what Jesus point is.... 'clean' foods cannot make a person righteous.
"what goes into our mouths cannot make us righteous" but the things that come out of our mouths (the things we say and do) prove if we are righteous or wicked.
Again you are missing my point. He TOLD them to eat the food. He was telling people to go against the law. I am not asking about the motives of the law, I am talking about the law.
If breaking the law is okay as long as you believe you are following the "spirit" of it, then fine. Condoms and pre marital sex for everyone
the mosaic law was taken out of the way and nailed to the stake along with Christ...thats why christians said that 'Christ is the end' of the mosaic law.
If the mosiac law is not obligatory, then how can anyone be breaking it by eating foods restricted under it?