Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!
I see this as one of the many new and different moral issues created by modern technology.In your opinion, when, if ever, should the government (i.e., someone acting on behalf of the government) be allowed to forcibly administer a psychotropic drug to persons?
When there is good reason to fear harm to that person or others, and no established statement from that person on whether he or she would prefer not to be given such drugs, at the very least.In your opinion, when, if ever, should the government (i.e., someone acting on behalf of the government) be allowed to forcibly administer a psychotropic drug to persons?
(“Forcibly” just means “contrary to a person's consent”.)
I assume you are not in the USA?I never want to live in a world where the government can create laws that can force people to take any kind of drug or medication against their consent.
I'm in the US military and I'm in the position where I am forced to take medications.I assume you are not in the USA?
Medicines are forced upon those who do not want them all the time in the USA.I'm in the US military and I'm in the position where I am forced to take medications.
Unfortunately we do live in such a world. In the US, the Court has held that:I never want to live in a world where the government can create laws that can force people to take any kind of drug or medication against their consent.
You don't know of any psychoactive drug that has been shown to make an incompetent person competent, do you?I see this as one of the many new and different moral issues created by modern technology.
There are people with mental health issues that get enormous benefit from medication. But those same medications sometimes give them reasons to not take them. Or their illness does. So they don't want to take the drugs that make a competent decision possible.
Then what do you do? Violate their personal freedoms, having good reason to believe that they will be glad you did afterwards? Or let them "freely choose" self destruction?
"No established statement"? Shouldn't a person be allowed to give his/her informed consent to be given a psychotropic drug?When there is good reason to fear harm to that person or others, and no established statement from that person on whether he or she would prefer not to be given such drugs, at the very least.
Yes, as a matter of fact I do.You don't know of any psychoactive drug that has been shown to make an incompetent person competent, do you?
Note that I did define "forcibly" so as to avoid the topic of children who cannot give or withhold their consent.and here I was talking about parents making their children get shots.....
Provide that evidence. Obviously one cannot conclude from an anecdote that a psychoactive drug has been shown to make an incompetent person competent.Yes, as a matter of fact I do.You don't know of any psychoactive drug that has been shown to make an incompetent person competent, do you?
What kind of "person"?In your opinion, when, if ever, should the government (i.e., someone acting on behalf of the government) be allowed to forcibly administer a psychotropic drug to persons?
(“Forcibly” just means “contrary to a person's consent”.)
What kind of person? Any kind of person who can be forcibly (i.e., contrary to his/her consent) administered a psychotropic drug--which means any adult person who is able to deny his/her consent to be administered a drug.What kind of "person"?
I am not a clinical anything. All I have is many anecdotes with a clear pattern running through them. Many people benefit from the medications, but the results are spotty and uneven. All drugs are like that, some more than others.Provide that evidence. Obviously one cannot conclude from an anecdote that a psychoactive drug has been shown to make an incompetent person competent.
No. Nobody does.BTW, are you sure you know what competent means?
I would suggest that most persons have consented, in light of how they have unfortunately contracted (in various ways) as agreeing to be a subject to those who might administer the drugs on their behalf.What kind of person? Any kind of person who can be forcibly (i.e., contrary to his/her consent) administered a psychotropic drug--which means any adult person who is able to deny his/her consent to be administered a drug.
You could try reading and understanding the evidence, couldn't you? Obviously one cannot determine the effectiveness of a drug by giving someone a pill then noting that the rash disappeared in a few days. Right?I am not a clinical anything. All I have is many anecdotes with a clear pattern running through them.