Full of Grace in the Greek

[MotoEric]

Hi,

Ok, sorry to be a pest, but here is another question:

I recently read a claim that the term 'full of grace' is only used twice in the New Testament, and neither of those was referring to Mary.

According to the site that I was reading the term Full of Grace when referring to Mary was in the Vulgate and not in the Greek, which is the language that the New Testament was written in.

Is that true?

Thanks again,

Eric

 

[MotoEric]

Ok, clearly I'm not doing enough of my own homework. It seems that the greek word in question is:

kecharitomene

It also seems that it can be interpreted in different ways, one of which is 'graced one'.

A different question:

Does the Church teach that Mary was without sin throughout her life?

Thanks!

Eric

 

[Smoke]

I'm curious to know what they're thinking.

I got out my handy concordance to see how many times the phrase "full of grace" is used in the King James Version, and I only found one, referring to Jesus. However, they're making claims about the Greek.

The word κεχαριτωμενη in the Greek text indicates that Mary has been favored or "graced" by God. "Full of grace" is a perfectly acceptable translation. Various forms of the word χαριs (grace or favor) occur all over the Bible.

 

[Smoke]

Does the Church teach that Mary was without sin throughout her life?

Yes. The Catholic Church teaches, as a matter of dogma, that "[t]he most Blessed Virgin Mary was, from the first moment of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege of almighty God and by virtue of the merits of Jesus Christ, Savior of the human race, preserved immune from all stain of original sin." The Catholic Church also teaches that Mary was free, throughout her entire life, of any personal sin. The latter belief is shared by the Orthodox Church. (The former isn't, because of a different understanding of original sin.)

 

[MotoEric]

Thanks!

I believe that their translations are tilted towards what they want it to say, rather than what it can legitimately be translated to.

Is the continuing sinless state of Mary part of the infallible teachings? Is there any scriptural support for that?

Thanks again,

Eric

 

[athanasius]

Midnight blue did a great job in explaining! Here is some more to study on this subject Eric. Fr Mateo Greek Scholar and new testament scholar shows the real Greek meaning behind the words Hail Full of Grace and its relationship to the Immaculate conception. Enjoy! This is a great article:

CRI's Attack on Mary: Part II (This Rock: September 1992)

 

[Scott1]

I believe that their translations are tilted towards what they want it to say, rather than what it can legitimately be translated to.

Yep.... lotta people do that.

Is the continuing sinless state of Mary part of the infallible teachings?

Yes.... belief in this is not essential for a justification/salvation, but is an integral part of RCC Tradition.
From the Catechism of the Catholic Church:
499 The deepening of faith in the virginal motherhood led the Church to confess Mary's real and perpetual virginity even in the act of giving birth to the Son of God made man. In fact, Christ's birth "did not diminish his mother's virginal integrity but sanctified it." And so the liturgy of the Church celebrates Mary as Aeiparthenos, the "Ever-virgin".
510 Mary "remained a virgin in conceiving her Son, a virgin in giving birth to him, a virgin in carrying him, a virgin in nursing him at her breast, always a virgin" (St. Augustine, Serm. 186, 1: PL 38, 999): with her whole being she is "the handmaid of the Lord" (Lk 1:38).

Is there any scriptural support for that?

Mary is Ever Virgin

Peace,
S