firedragon
Veteran Member
'And if he dies through this fall to the ground, the obligation to stone the transgressor is fulfilled.'
Yes. If he dies, but he is not meant to die from the fall.
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'And if he dies through this fall to the ground, the obligation to stone the transgressor is fulfilled.'
He is, otherwise they wouldn't be pushing him to begin with.Yes. If he dies, but he is not meant to die from the fall.
If I may.....If not, did someone just invent it?
He is, otherwise they wouldn't be pushing him to begin with.
And if the condemned man does not die from his fall,
If I may.....
learning to live on the ground
no longer climbing the trees for saftey
Man learned to grip stones and clubs
clubs for up close fighting
stones for distance
and Man would learn to use such things with impunity
I realize the tense of your postI am speaking about the Quran and the post quranic time.
I realize the tense of your post
but you did ask
did someone invent stoning?
yes
When did Muslims start using this? Its not in the Quran.
I think the fundamental assumption here is that Muhammad never did anything which contradicts what the Quran says.Stoning to death as a punishment occurs in the Tanakh and is prescribed even for people who try to convert people away from YHWH, and then when a bride is not a virgin at the time of marriage, and maybe we could say "etc". Well, the Qur'an doesn't have any stoning or Rajm in it whatsoever.
Everyone knows that there are several ahadith that propagate Rajm or stoning like one where it says the part of the Qur'an that had this verse written was eaten by a goat during the prophet Muhammed's funeral days, and then there is another hadith where a man speaks to a monkey who tells him that they are stoning another monkey for adultery. Strangely, the miracle of a man speaking monkey language has not been made famous as one of the biggest miracles, said as a side note.
Nevertheless, does not the question arise that since the Qur'an which is supposed to be the Furqan or the criterion for Islamic theology does not mention stoning anywhere, how does one content that rajm entered the theology? Was it a Biblical tradition that somehow crept into Islam? If not, did someone just invent it? What is the reasoning behind the adoption of this practice? What do we know?
I think the fundamental assumption here is that Muhammad never did anything which contradicts what the Quran says.
One possibility is that Muhammad did it, but it was not recorded in the Quran.
You are projecting here, I did not deny that there are other possibilities.Okay. So how many possibilities are you taking into account? All or just the one's you like?...
If Rajm came from Muhammad then the topic is being addressed directly.Also, is it a need that you have to bring in Muhammed and that he "Possibly" did something or not when the topic is addressing the Quran and where Rajm came from?
First of all I did not say that Muhammad was necessarily a hypocrite, it may have been His practice to follow what He considered to be the Jewish shariah until abrogative verses where (allegedly) revealed. Consider the hadith;Possibilities are just your wish that you wish to impose since maybe you have a need to, and many would cook up many possibilities. Its an invalid statement to make and as you always try to go "historical" and not theological now you have made a non-historical statement of possibility while to be historical you have to have historical shreds of evidence and discuss probabilities with good, dated evidence. Not "its possible that Muhammed was a hypocrite" which is just your need you are portraying.
Kind of pathetic.
Narrated Ash Shaibani:
I asked `Abdullah bin Abi `Aufa, 'Did Allah's Messenger (SAWS) carry out the Rajam penalty ( i.e., stoning to death)?' He said, "Yes." I said, "Before the revelation of Surat-an-Nur or after it?" He replied, "I don't Know."
You are projecting here, I did not deny that there are other possibilities.
If Rajm came from Muhammad then the topic is being addressed directly.
First of all I did not say that Muhammad was necessarily a hypocrite, it may have been His practice to follow what He considered to be the Jewish shariah until abrogative verses where (allegedly) revealed. Consider the hadith;
Narrated Ash Shaibani:
I asked `Abdullah bin Abi `Aufa, 'Did Allah's Messenger (SAWS) carry out the Rajam penalty ( i.e., stoning to death)?' He said, "Yes." I said, "Before the revelation of Surat-an-Nur or after it?" He replied, "I don't Know."
Bukhari Book 86 hadith 43.
So for example the possibility is there that Muhammad was just doing practices similar to other Abrahamics until the alleged revelation of abrogative verses, which would not be hypocritical .
As far as the possible historical evidence goes, I think you know of the numerous hadith relating that Muhammad did stoning, as well as stories that various prominent early Muslims considered it part of the Shariah. Can you find any historically credible hadith in which Muhammad rejects stoning as being practiced historically?
Why would I "need" Muhammad to be a hypocrite? Islam would either stand or fail on it's own merits. If a drunk said alcohol is bad his hypocrisy does not mean alchohol is good. Likewise if a cocain junky says cocain is good the abscence of hypocrisy does not make cocain good. The same is true of Islam, it stands or fails on its own merits not on whether it's founder was a hypocrite.
In any case I think you are projecting, it is part of your religion that Muhammad is unquestionably good, thus you have the "need" to cling to that otherwise your worldview falls apart. By comparison liberals are free to view Muhammad as being saintly or hypocritical, as it's not a pre-packaged belief system it will not crumble if one aspect of it is challenged.
it is part of your religion that Muhammad is unquestionably good, thus you have the "need" to cling to that otherwise your worldview falls apart.
By comparison liberals are free to view Muhammad as being saintly or hypocritical,
I don’t see why I personally need to analyse the hadith when there are experts who do that.You are trying your best to turn this thread into something that will fulfill one of your needs. Why? You should ask yourself.
But lets see how you verify these things.
You said "Its possible that Muhammed practiced Rajm". YOu said it.
So now please provide your validations.
ONe case. Lets be specific.
How do you validate this hadith as a valid historical event? It seems like you have pretty good confidence right? So can you show me how sarih this hadith is? What are the thadhlees levels you have analysed? In fact, what are your analyses if any?
Lets hear it.
Nope, as I explained earlier Muhammad could have been a saint, a sinner, or anything in between, all of that is allowed within the bounds of liberalism which has no orthodoxy unlike Islam.Maybe you think everyone is just like you with a need to either divinise or demonise Muhammed.
I have not expressed hatred for anyone. You are being dishonest, hypocritical, projecting and off topic all in one go - well playednot project your love to hate
I have not expressed hatred for anyone. You are being dishonest, hypocritical, projecting and off topic all in one go - well played
Nope, as I explained earlier Muhammad could have been a saint, a sinner, or anything in between, all of that is allowed within the bounds of liberalism which has no orthodoxy unlike Islam.