The Kilted Heathen
Crow FreyjasmaðR
Oh, you mean the words 'el (male deity) and 'elat (female deity)? Yeah.The deity from a culture that didn't have a gendered word for deity.
Yes, the English language is quite relevant for this discussion, as we're discussing a modern English word. Quite hypocritical for you to now suggest that somehow English is irrelevant, when you decided to introduce yourself here by calling to question my grasp of English grammar.And somehow the English language is relative for this discussion!!
No, it once wasn't. All the way back to the PIE root of 'mon' it is a word for adult male person. The Old English word "werman" denotes a husband, not just a man. It's usage to indicate men in general has fewer than three uses in entirety, which in etymological studies does not constitute a fact."Man" in singular was once gender neutral. English had the word "wereman" for male person specifically because 'man" was once just "person".
The word that you're searching for is the Old English mann, which does denote all of humankind in general, but is not the same as man, just as "man" is not the same as "human" or "mankind". To claim such just because those words include "man" is grossly irresponsible, over-simplified, and grammatically ignorant.
No, I have stated that the root of the word "god" was gender neutral. With the introduction of monotheism to European polytheistic worship, "goddess" was a necessary gender-form addition. Before then it was practically the same as the Greek өεός (theos) meaning "divine" or "deity".Even your own post states that the oldest term for "god" was originally a gender neutral term.
No. Regarding the Christian god, he is male because Yahweh is male. He is never referred to as a female deity. My argument in regards to the word "god" is that it refers to a male deity, and is nonsensical to use in reference to a female deity. No one calls Freyja the god of love and female fertility.So your argument boils down to "Christian God is male because of this specific evolution of the English language" which is just patently ridiculous.
No, not the old myths. The Prose Edda - Snorri's interpretation - otherwise called the Younger Edda. The birth of Sleipnir is not found in the old myths, and it is only ever stated that Sleipnir is the "greatest of all horses".The old myths state that Loki, in the form of a Mare, went off with a Stallion, and months later came back with a baby horse.
However in the Prose Edda, Loki lures Svaðilfari away, returns with Sleipnir, and not-so-oddly enough, Svaðilfari is never seen nor heard from again. It could be that Loki birthed Sleipnir, or it could be that Loki got Svaðilfari with a mare, and brought back Sleipnir. Or, even still, it could be that Loki created Sleipnir from Svaðilfari, as the later is never seen again.
Still yet, you're referencing myths under the assumption that they're held as fact. Especially the myths as interpreted and (frankly) mangled by Snorri. It's not really providing a strong case to your claims (and arrogant attitude that we need less of) regarding the word "god" as a male-gendered word.
Actually the point and implication of that story is that the Aesir are not above dishonor, as they tricked the jotun builder so that he wouldn't win a wager (and thus Freyja's hand in marriage), and then killed him when he called them on their actions. The bit of Loki and Sleipnir is a very minor part in Snorri's tale.Those are some legit ridiculous hoops you are jumping through just to assert Loki didn't give birth as a female horse, when that is clearly the implication of the story!!