False. Religion is about moral control. As I said before, hope has naff all to do with it. This is another lame duck argument with no basis. You are literally saying "We should assume this interpretation is correct because it is nicer to believe it". Do you honestly think that's a good argument?
No, I'm saying it because
that's what it is. What makes you think religion is "about moral control?" Don't you
get it?? Don't you see that, for the ancients, moral control was what it took to lift humanity out of its mire of degradation? We've moved beyond the need for control, which is the
whole point of Xy -- the Law has been fulfilled. Morality is now, not a matter of exterior control, but a matter of interior discipline. Morality, to be sure, is part of religion, but it is not the
basis for religion.
No it doesn't. If I addressed the Biblical God specifically, I would have said so. We are not in the "Christian" section of the forum, and I did not (until it was brought up to me) address the Bible. Don't move goalposts.
'K. Perhaps you could enlighten us all as to
what other Deity is referred to as "God?"
Your argument that my argument is baseless because they don't foster hope is baseless.
Oh?
Really?!
This amounts to nothing more than the "Pee-Wee Herman" fallacy: "I know you are, but what am I?"
Reality isn't contingent upon the arbitrary distinction that you have a preference for.
It's hardly arbitrary.
if you're admitting that God is a "concept" why can an evil God not ALSO be a concept?
It can -- and it is. But that's not the concept of the God we believe in. And, as you so eloquently stated above, "reality isn't contingent upon the arbitrary distinction that
you have a preference for." Reality, in this case, is determined by the community who believe in the Deity, and, therefore, establish the parameters for what the Deity
is.
If it is a misunderstanding, then please indicate to me the CORRECT understanding of the literature and clearly demonstrate how you know that this understanding is correct. If you cannot, then your dismissal is baseless.
The correct understanding of the literature entails employment of the exegetical process, which includes several different kinds of critical reading, among them
cultural,
historic, and
form criticism. If we read the texts in such a fashion, we'll find that the texts in question are largely metaphorical, and based upon an ancient and culturally-dependent idea of what constitutes a good God caring for God's people, who constitute those people, and what constitutes danger to those people.
What
you've managed to do is simply take the texts at face value, as if they were news reports of modern incidents: "God killed children in Exodus, therefore, God is evil." But that's an incorrect reading yielding incorrect interpretations. The children represent longevity. The Egyptians represent oppression. So, having God do away with Egyptian children represents God doing away with eternal oppression. For a people who are constantly getting beat up on and enslaved, do you see how such a metaphorical story fosters hope that their world will not always be so? The story isn't "about an evil God." The story is about
hope that oppression will not always be visited upon the community who told and later wrote the story. As it turns out, Israel is no longer oppressed, so "hope" has turned out to be more than simply "wishful thinking."
I have confidence that this is correct, because it agrees with the work of most eminent, peer-reviewed scholars on the subject.
I said before, stop moving goalposts. Is it not theoretically possible that the God addressed in other theological texts IS the same God addressed in the Bible? It is.
No. It's not "theoretically possible." Because that's not the way it
is.
In other words, there is no basis.
Wait... how is hope
not a basis? The first, prehistoric believers saw a volcano erupt, or lightning strike a tree, and
hoped to understand what was happening. they
hoped to gain control over the event by understanding it. They
hoped to alleviate the effects by somehow appeasing it. Of
course hope is a valid basis.
Please demonstrate a correct interpretation of scripture is and how you reached that conclusion, then.
Asked and answered.
Strawman. And irrelevant. God also created herpes, according to your theology. But I doubt you'd indicate that is part of the deepest hopes of humanity.
Wait... how are life and love not part of what we deeply hope for, again? God created herpes. God
also created us with minds to manipulate creation to either eradicate it or alleviate its effects. That, also, constitutes hope.
Of course it wouldn't be. If God were evil, he wouldn't tell people he was misleading. That's pretty much the first rule of being evil: don't let anyone know you're a dishonest, manipulative monster.
And can you demonstrate realistically 1) why creating such a God would be advantageous to those who believe in it, 2) ways in which the bible portrays God as such a deceiver, 3) What would lead you to believe that the biblical God is such a God?
There is no requirement, in any definition or description of God, for God's entire existence to predicated on the idea of "hope".
What else might it be predicated upon?
“For in this hope we were saved. Now hope that is seen is not hope. For who hopes for what he sees? But if we hope for what we do not see, we wait for it with patience” -- Rom. 8:24-25. “If God is for us, who can be against us?" -- Rom. 8:31
There's your description of hope of salvation in God.
Prove it, without wishful thinking or baseless interpretation of scripture.
7 “Ask, and it will be given you; search, and you will find; knock, and the door will be opened for you. 8 For everyone who asks receives, and everyone who searches finds, and for everyone who knocks, the door will be opened. 9 Is there anyone among you who, if your child asks for bread, will give a stone? 10 Or if the child asks for a fish, will give a snake? 11 If you then, who are evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your Father in heaven give good things to those who ask him!" -- Matt. 7:7-11
This is a definition that God is good and not evil.
Second rule of being evil: convince people you're actually good.
In what way is "giving good things" understood as "actually being evil?" it simply doesn't fit the literature that we're presented with.
Additionally, (again) to what advantage would it be for the believing community to actually couch God as "evil" toward them?
Where is the misunderstanding? Demonstrate how your interpretation of the text is accurate and how you known this to be the case and you might actually have an argument. At the moment, your argument boils down to "I interpret it this way because it's nice, and if anyone interprets it differently it's because they don't understand it despite the fact I have no basis to assume that even I understand it".
Asked and answered.
Responsible. Exegesis.
That's the lamest argument I ever heard. "Hope" is not a measuring stick of truth. You can't determine what is true and accurate by "hoping" for it. Please stop acting like a child.
But what is the truth we're looking for? The truth here is that hope is a theme that has absolute continuity within the belief system, and informs how we envision God. We hope to be saved. We hope to have life. We hope to love and be loved. We hope to increase in wisdom and power. All of these things are part and parcel of the religion we have formed. Why do Jews keep the Law? Because they hope that doing so will make them better people, and that doing so will perpetuate the Covenants between God and themselves. Why do Christians receive communion? Because we hope that doing so will form us into the Body of Christ, and free us from the power of sin. We all hope that there is goodness in the world, and it is through that hope that we conceptualize a God who takes care of us.
Is God
actually,
physically those things? I don't know. But that's immaterial, since God cannot be physically apprehended. All we have is
theology, and theology that deals with the biblical God is predicated upon hope. It is that basis that forms the truth of how we define God.
Your personal interpretation is irrelevant to reality.
This has nothing to do with "[my] personal interpretation." It has everything to do with the sense of the community.
And so they decided to express this manifestation of hope, life, love and happiness and a genocidal, manipulative, sexist, torturing, war-mongering, rape apologist and slavery advocate? Great theory.
Again, you're reading ancient texts through a modern concept. People are only capable of understanding what they're capable of understanding. The ancient, Middle-Eastern people had a particular understanding of 1) who constituted "God's people" and 2) the ways in which God cared for God's people. We modern Westerners have completely different concepts of those things. Therefore, we no longer conceptualize a God who visits evil upon people who are "not like us."
Because such an interpretation no longer serves our concept of hope.
Then you must admit that your ENTIRE ARGUMENT IS BASELESS and as such you have NO BASIS ON WHICH TO ASSERT THAT ALMOST ANY INTERPRETATION OF SCRIPTURE (much less of the general concept of God) IS "LESS ACCURATE" THAN YOUR OWN.
What does "hope" have to do with the exegetical process (which is highly reasonable), except that engaging the texts exegetically shows us that hope lies at the foundation of the theological concepts presented therein?
You haven't provided a single scrap of evidence that demonstrates that your interpretation of God or scripture is any more likely to be accurate than anyone else's, and that was the entire point that I was getting it. Your belief is baseless, your interpretation is baseless, and your arguments supporting your positions are just pure wishful thinking. You have no truth to offer to differentiate your interpretation from anyone else's, and the God you believe is the personification of hope is just as likely in truth a personification of evil, and your inability to tell the difference is not a sufficient argument that it is not theoretically possible.
The texts, themselves,
do present a God of hope, if exegeted correctly, as I've shown above.
If you have no basis for your beliefs or your understanding of scripture, then don't you dare try to lecture anyone else that their interpretation is inaccurate, or dismiss any interpretation of God based on nothing but your internal prejudice and a childish desire for "hope". Your interpretation is no better than any other until you can clearly demonstrate how and why it is accurate.
Once again: asked and answered. Don't
you dare to try to lecture one who has studied the texts, the theological constructs and processes, and the beliefs of the gathered community in depth, on the graduate level, when
you clearly don't have any basis for claiming that God "could be evil." The fact is,
God. Is. Not. Presented. That. Way. That's
fact -- unless one is too ignorant of the exegetical process to give the texts anything other than an irresponsible, surface glance. Anything else is baseless flight of fancy. and that's just not what theology is all about.