Gospels and Shiite hadiths match up.

[Link]

It's not as simple as adopting what Isa said in a way that does not equate with Him being God. There are saying in all the Bible that show Jesus is God. It might be OK for a Muslim to deny what the Bible says, but not so for a Christian, even if plenty of Christians do it these days with various Biblical teachings.

On my research, there is nothing to indicate that in the Gospels. Often, the word God should be translated as exalted ones or exalted one instead of God in the particular place. There is in fact clear statements that Jesus did not mean trinity and that Jews were taking his statements out of context and accusing him when similar words exist in the Tanakh.

I do not think people naturally would come to trinity conclusion, it is rather the church that pushes to that view.

 

[Brian2]

The claimed sayings in the Bible showing Jesus is god is only what trinitarian calling themselves ‘Christian’ claim.

The very fact that the governing term is ‘Christian’ (‘Follower of Christ’) shows that ‘Christ’ is not God.

God TAUGHT the one who He anointed with His holy Spirit.

The term ‘Christ’ means ‘Anointed.

Anointed means ‘Set Aside [for Priesthood and/or Kingship]’

An apostle said:

• “You know what has happened throughout the province of Judea, beginning in Galilee after the baptism that John preached, how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with Holy Spirit and power, and how he went around doing good and healing all who were under the power of the devil, because God was with him.“ (Acts 10:37-38)

Jesus said:

• “… what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’?” (John 10:36)

You can see from these two verses (and there are more, obviously!) that God and Jesus are two completely different persons and entity types. Jesus at no time claims to be God and goes to pains to point out that he did not claim to be a God but only ‘the son of God’.

As I’ve pointed out before, ‘Son’, means ‘He who does the works of the Father’, and indeed, Jesus points this out to the Jews in this following verse:

• “Do not believe me unless I do the works of my Father.” (John 10:37)

But the worst part about trinitarian fallacy is that they continue to PROVE A TRINITY with only vain and openly false ‘evidence’ that Jesus is God…. forgetting (??!) of course that ‘TRINITY’ is Three!!

The Father and Son are 2 different persons and the Trinity is 3 persons and those 3 persons are in the one God.
The one true God is the Father and His Son is in Him and the Spirit also is in Him. 3 persons in the one God.
The Father sent His Son to become a servant and a human servant and the Son complied and did not seek to grasp the equality that He had with the Father but humbled Himself and became a man and became obedient to the death and His Father exalted Him and gave Him the name which is above all names so that at the name of Jesus we all will kneel. (iow Jesus inherited His Father's name without demanding what was His right and what belonged to Him anyway and so we all kneel to worship Jesus when His name is mentioned)
Phil 2:5 Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, 6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7 but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. 8 And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. 9 Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name, 10 so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

You should notice that this passage is about humility between equals. Jesus is not a good example if He was not the equal of God His Father.
With you belief that Jesus came into existence when He was born on earth this passage also shows you that Jesus was with God before He became a man.

 

[Brian2]

On my research, there is nothing to indicate that in the Gospels. Often, the word God should be translated as exalted ones or exalted one instead of God in the particular place. There is in fact clear statements that Jesus did not mean trinity and that Jews were taking his statements out of context and accusing him when similar words exist in the Tanakh.

I do not think people naturally would come to trinity conclusion, it is rather the church that pushes to that view.

John 20:27Then Jesus said to Thomas, “Put your finger here and look at My hands. Reach out your hand and put it into My side. Stop doubting and believe.” 28Thomas replied, “My Lord and my God!” 29Jesus said to him, “Because you have seen Me, you have believed; blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.”…

Jesus was the God of Thomas. Thomas was a Jew and Jews know there is only one God and would not have lightly called Jesus "My God".

Titus 2:12 It instructs us to renounce ungodliness and worldly passions, and to live sensible, upright, and godly lives in the present age, 13as we await the blessed hope and glorious appearance of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ. 14He gave Himself for us to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for Himself a people for His own possession, zealous for good deeds.…

This teaching and belief that Jesus is the God of those in the early Church can also be seen in the earliest writings of the Church Fathers about Jesus.
Here are a couple of sites with examples of Jesus being called God in the writings of the early Church.
The Apostolic Fathers and the Deity of Christ
Nine Early Church Fathers Who Taught Jesus Is God

 

[Soapy]

The Father and Son are 2 different persons and the Trinity is 3 persons and those 3 persons are in the one God.
The one true God is the Father and His Son is in Him and the Spirit also is in Him. 3 persons in the one God.
The Father sent His Son to become a servant and a human servant and the Son complied and did not seek to grasp the equality that He had with the Father but humbled Himself and became a man and became obedient to the death and His Father exalted Him and gave Him the name which is above all names so that at the name of Jesus we all will kneel. (iow Jesus inherited His Father's name without demanding what was His right and what belonged to Him anyway and so we all kneel to worship Jesus when His name is mentioned)
Phil 2:5 Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, 6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7 but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. 8 And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. 9 Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name, 10 so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

You should notice that this passage is about humility between equals. Jesus is not a good example if He was not the equal of God His Father.
With you belief that Jesus came into existence when He was born on earth this passage also shows you that Jesus was with God before He became a man.

The equality is among the apostles of Christ.

The verses demonstrate how the apostles should behave towards EACH OTHER and towards others in that ‘Though they have the spirit of God and can do all manner of great deeds, they should, though, humble themselves in their usage of the power of God (Holy Spirit) and not try to exploit it for their own benefit (not try to become equal to God)

I notice you modified your view of Jesus, making him less than the Father even though your trinity belief is that he is equal to the Father… which you inadvertently mis-mentioned in other posts.

The be-all and end-all of what you say is typical of trinitarian fallacy: Jesus is God when you want to say he is, and Jesus is not God when you also want him to be.,,, yet ‘God’ is a constant…. A totally mathematical and ideological conundrum… a fallacy!!

 

[Soapy]

John 20:27Then Jesus said to Thomas, “Put your finger here and look at My hands. Reach out your hand and put it into My side. Stop doubting and believe.” 28Thomas replied, “My Lord and my God!” 29Jesus said to him, “Because you have seen Me, you have believed; blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.”…

Jesus was the God of Thomas. Thomas was a Jew and Jews know there is only one God and would not have lightly called Jesus "My God".

Titus 2:12 It instructs us to renounce ungodliness and worldly passions, and to live sensible, upright, and godly lives in the present age, 13as we await the blessed hope and glorious appearance of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ. 14He gave Himself for us to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for Himself a people for His own possession, zealous for good deeds.…

This teaching and belief that Jesus is the God of those in the early Church can also be seen in the earliest writings of the Church Fathers about Jesus.
Here are a couple of sites with examples of Jesus being called God in the writings of the early Church.
The Apostolic Fathers and the Deity of Christ
Nine Early Church Fathers Who Taught Jesus Is God

Titus 2:11 states that it is the ‘GRACE OF GOD’ that appeared to mankind…. Not GOD, Himself.

 

[Brian2]

The equality is among the apostles of Christ.

The verses demonstrate how the apostles should behave towards EACH OTHER and towards others in that ‘Though they have the spirit of God and can do all manner of great deeds, they should, though, humble themselves in their usage of the power of God (Holy Spirit) and not try to exploit it for their own benefit (not try to become equal to God)

Yes the apostles are were equal and the example of Jesus attitude and humility shows His equality to God His Father.
How could an apostle become equal to God? What are you talking about? Have you read Philipians 2?
You have said nothing about how Phil 2 shows that Jesus was with God in heaven before becoming a man.

I notice you modified your view of Jesus, making him less than the Father even though your trinity belief is that he is equal to the Father… which you inadvertently mis-mentioned in other posts.

The be-all and end-all of what you say is typical of trinitarian fallacy: Jesus is God when you want to say he is, and Jesus is not God when you also want him to be.,,, yet ‘God’ is a constant…. A totally mathematical and ideological conundrum… a fallacy!!

God is what God is and we do not have to have complete understanding of what God is.
Jesus was still equal to His Father in nature when He became a man. Jesus humbled Himself and did not use His God attributes when He became a man but lived humbly as a servant of God. He was not a servant before He became a man and He learned obedience.

 

[Brian2]

Titus 2:11 states that it is the ‘GRACE OF GOD’ that appeared to mankind…. Not GOD, Himself.

Titus 2:11 For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation for all people, 12 training us to renounce ungodliness and worldly passions, and to live self-controlled, upright, and godly lives in the present age,13 waiting for our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of our great God and Saviour Jesus Christ, 14 who gave himself for us to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself ta people for his own possession who are zealous for good works.

But what do you say about verse 13?

 

[Soapy]

Titus 2:11 For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation for all people, 12 training us to renounce ungodliness and worldly passions, and to live self-controlled, upright, and godly lives in the present age,13 waiting for our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of our great God and Saviour Jesus Christ, 14 who gave himself for us to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself ta people for his own possession who are zealous for good works.

But what do you say about verse 13?

‘The glory of our great God’.

Verse 13 says it: Jesus Christ is the Glory of God. He is not God but the Glory of Him. This is reflected in God saying of Jesus:

• ‘This is my son in whom I am well pleased!’

The Son glorifies the Father as Jesus says:

• “After Jesus said this, he looked toward heaven and prayed: “Father, the hour has come. Glorify your Son, that your Son may glorify you.” (John 17:1)

… and saviour, Jesus is the saviour: that’s what the name, ‘Joshua’, means : ‘He who saves’.

(The true and proper name of the son of God is not ‘JESUS’ but ‘JOSHUA’ and Joshua was the one in the O.T. who ‘saved’ the children of Israel into the promised land)

 

[Soapy]

Yes the apostles are were equal and the example of Jesus attitude and humility shows His equality to God His Father.
How could an apostle become equal to God? What are you talking about? Have you read Philipians 2?
You have said nothing about how Phil 2 shows that Jesus was with God in heaven before becoming a man.

Jesus was not in Heaven with God so why would I say anything about that?

Phil 2 does not say anything about Jesus being in Heaven with God, either.

Phil 2 speaks about Jesus being endowed with the spirit of God which we know from when God prophesied it (Isaiah 42:1), anointed him with it (Matthew 3:16), the apostles wrote about it in (Acts 10:37-38), and Jesus stated it in John 10:36.

God is what God is and we do not have to have complete understanding of what God is.
Jesus was still equal to His Father in nature when He became a man. Jesus humbled Himself and did not use His God attributes when He became a man but lived humbly as a servant of God. He was not a servant before He became a man and He learned obedience.

Jesus came to reveal God. If you are claiming that you don’t know God then you are claiming that Jesus failed to reveal the Father… You are saying that Jesus lord when he said:

• “For I gave them the words you gave me and they accepted them. They knew with certainty that I came from you, and they believed that you sent me.” (John 17:8)

Or, perhaps, it’s more likely that you belong to those to whom the words were not revealed or you did not accept them.

 

[Brian2]

‘The glory of our great God’.

Verse 13 says it: Jesus Christ is the Glory of God. He is not God but the Glory of Him. This is reflected in God saying of Jesus:

• ‘This is my son in whom I am well pleased!’

The Son glorifies the Father as Jesus says:

• “After Jesus said this, he looked toward heaven and prayed: “Father, the hour has come. Glorify your Son, that your Son may glorify you.” (John 17:1)

… and saviour, Jesus is the saviour: that’s what the name, ‘Joshua’, means : ‘He who saves’.

(The true and proper name of the son of God is not ‘JESUS’ but ‘JOSHUA’ and Joshua was the one in the O.T. who ‘saved’ the children of Israel into the promised land)

2 Peter 1:1 “Simeon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have obtained a faith of equal standing with ours by the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ.“
Acts 20:28 Keep watch over yourselves and the entire flock of which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers. Be shepherds of the church of God, which He purchased with His own blood.
John 1:18No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is Himself God and is at the Father’s side, has made Him known.
John 20:28Thomas replied, “My Lord and my God!” 29Jesus said to him, “Because you have seen Me, you have believed; blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.”

 

[Brian2]

Jesus was not in Heaven with God so why would I say anything about that?

Phil 2 does not say anything about Jesus being in Heaven with God, either.

Phil 2 speaks about Jesus being endowed with the spirit of God which we know from when God prophesied it (Isaiah 42:1), anointed him with it (Matthew 3:16), the apostles wrote about it in (Acts 10:37-38), and Jesus stated it in John 10:36.

Phil 2:5 Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, 6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7 but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. 8 And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.

In the above passage do you notice that is says that Jesus was in the form of God and then became a man?
I would say He was in heaven when He was in the form of God but that is not the important part for you to take note of.
John 17:5And now, Father, glorify Me in Your presence with the glory I had with You before the world existed.

Jesus came to reveal God. If you are claiming that you don’t know God then you are claiming that Jesus failed to reveal the Father… You are saying that Jesus lord when he said:

• “For I gave them the words you gave me and they accepted them. They knew with certainty that I came from you, and they believed that you sent me.” (John 17:8)

Or, perhaps, it’s more likely that you belong to those to whom the words were not revealed or you did not accept them.

• “For I gave them the words you gave me and they accepted them. They knew with certainty that I came from you, and they believed that you sent me.” (John 17:8)

You seem to have not accepted the words that Jesus spoke. You do not believe Jesus came from God His Father.

 

[Soapy]

2 Peter 1:1 “Simeon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have obtained a faith of equal standing with ours by the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ.“
Acts 20:28 Keep watch over yourselves and the entire flock of which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers. Be shepherds of the church of God, which He purchased with His own blood.
John 1:18No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is Himself God and is at the Father’s side, has made Him known.
John 20:28Thomas replied, “My Lord and my God!” 29Jesus said to him, “Because you have seen Me, you have believed; blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.”

Jesus Christ, who is seated at the Father’s side (in the seat of honour), HE HAS MADE GOD KNOWN TO US…. Jesus was sent to reveal GOD to the people.

Thomas was not seeing GOD… he was seeing Jesus. Jesus said to him: ‘I am not a spirit. Touch me and see that I am flesh and bone and a spirit does not have flesh and bone as I have!’

How are you saying that Jesus was almighty god with flesh and bone when we know the truth that God is Spirit…. A constant .., never changes…. Immutable?

What is this pagan flesh and bone God you believe in… although I know you already know you are speaking falsely….

Your desperation is showing in the extremely poor attempts you are making about your trinity belief… it really is failing your greatly!!

 

[Soapy]

Phil 2:5 Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, 6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7 but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. 8 And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.

In the above passage do you notice that is says that Jesus was in the form of God and then became a man?
I would say He was in heaven when He was in the form of God but that is not the important part for you to take note of.
John 17:5And now, Father, glorify Me in Your presence with the glory I had with You before the world existed.

• “For I gave them the words you gave me and they accepted them. They knew with certainty that I came from you, and they believed that you sent me.” (John 17:8)

You seem to have not accepted the words that Jesus spoke. You do not believe Jesus came from God His Father.

It’s all in the false translations. To be ‘in the form of’ something cannot mean that being the thing the fu is of…. since there would be need to say ‘in the firm of’ if the thing WAS the thing it was the form of?:

• The idol was in the form of a man’
• ‘The loaf of bread was in the form of a loaf of bread’?
  
• ‘The sweet was in the form of an umbrella’

No! It means that Jesus had the power of God. ‘Though he had the power of God he did not seek to be equal to God by misusing the power that was in his hands’. The power of God ix God’s holy Spirit which Jesus was anointed with (Acts 10:37-38)

Jesus CAME FROM THE FATHER: ‘I WAS SENT BY THE FATHER’ therefore he CAME FROM HE WHO SENT HIM.

Ambassador: ‘I have come from the king. He has sent me to tell you this and that!’

And thank you got admitting that ‘God [is] his Father’.

Prince: ‘The King is my Father!’

Would you say them that the Prince is the King?

 

[Brian2]

Jesus Christ, who is seated at the Father’s side (in the seat of honour), HE HAS MADE GOD KNOWN TO US…. Jesus was sent to reveal GOD to the people.

Thomas was not seeing GOD… he was seeing Jesus. Jesus said to him: ‘I am not a spirit. Touch me and see that I am flesh and bone and a spirit does not have flesh and bone as I have!’

How are you saying that Jesus was almighty god with flesh and bone when we know the truth that God is Spirit…. A constant .., never changes…. Immutable?

What is this pagan flesh and bone God you believe in… although I know you already know you are speaking falsely….

Your desperation is showing in the extremely poor attempts you are making about your trinity belief… it really is failing your greatly!!

Col 2:8See to it that no one takes you captive through philosophy and empty deception, which are based on human tradition and the spiritual forces of the world rather than on Christ. 9For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity dwells in bodily form. 10And you have been made complete in Christ, who is the head over every ruler and authority.…

 

[Brian2]

It’s all in the false translations. To be ‘in the form of’ something cannot mean that being the thing the fu is of…. since there would be need to say ‘in the firm of’ if the thing WAS the thing it was the form of?:

• The idol was in the form of a man’
• ‘The loaf of bread was in the form of a loaf of bread’?
  
• ‘The sweet was in the form of an umbrella’

No! It means that Jesus had the power of God. ‘Though he had the power of God he did not seek to be equal to God by misusing the power that was in his hands’. The power of God ix God’s holy Spirit which Jesus was anointed with (Acts 10:37-38)

Jesus CAME FROM THE FATHER: ‘I WAS SENT BY THE FATHER’ therefore he CAME FROM HE WHO SENT HIM.

Ambassador: ‘I have come from the king. He has sent me to tell you this and that!’

And thank you got admitting that ‘God [is] his Father’.

Prince: ‘The King is my Father!’

Would you say them that the Prince is the King?

The Prince owns everything that the King owns. The Prince is exactly like the King except for the authority that the King has. The good Prince waits to be given the authority from the King and does not take that authority by force. However the authority and title and name and glory of the King belong to the Prince.
BUT you seem to have missed the point I was making and that point is that Phil 2 shows us that Jesus existed with God His Father before He became a man.

 

[Soapy]

The Prince owns everything that the King owns. The Prince is exactly like the King except for the authority that the King has. The good Prince waits to be given the authority from the King and does not take that authority by force. However the authority and title and name and glory of the King belong to the Prince.
BUT you seem to have missed the point I was making and that point is that Phil 2 shows us that Jesus existed with God His Father before He became a man.

No, Brian2, I have not missed your fallacious point. Again, you rightly claim that God is Jesus’ spiritual Father (because to be ‘Son’ means ‘He who does the works of the Father’). So how can ‘He who does the works of the Father’ be EQUAL to the Father who gives him the work to do?

And, NO PRINCE OWNS what his Father and King owns… UNTIL it is granted to him. And when that which the king owns is granted to him then it is because the king has either died or abdicated … indeed, the authority of the king lies in his throne…. And which Prince has ownership of the kings throne before the king has died or abdicated?

In the UK, Prince Charles has only now become king since the RULING MONARCH, the Queen (Elizabeth II) has just died. He did not OWN the kingship since the queen could easily have granted it to Prince William, SON of Prince Charles!!!

Plus, more than one sons and princes: Charles has TWO sons, the queen has three Sons… they are all PRINCES?

But the angels of Heaven are all PRINCES. So you are saying that the angels, who are ‘Princes’ are the one God, too?:

• The Angel. Michael, is called ‘Prince, protector of the people’ (Daniel 12:1)
• Satan is called, ‘Prince of powers of the the air’ (Ephesians2:2) / ‘Ruler of this world’ (John 14:30)

King David referred to princes as far lesser than YAHWEH:

• “It is better to take refuge in the LORD than to trust in princes.” (Psalm 118:9)

Jesus is referred to as the Prince of PEACE. If ‘prince’ then who is KING of peace?

Oh, Brian2, please stop thrashing… it makes you look really bad - lacking in sensibilities. Do you remember that other posters are also reading the nonsense that you are writing?

 

[Soapy]

Col 2:8See to it that no one takes you captive through philosophy and empty deception, which are based on human tradition and the spiritual forces of the world rather than on Christ. 9For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity dwells in bodily form. 10And you have been made complete in Christ, who is the head over every ruler and authority.…

Again, Brian2, this is a mistranslation. We know that the spirit of God came down and anointed Jesus, to make him Christ (‘Christ’, means, ‘the Anointed one’)

The fullness of God’s spirit empowered Jesus (Acts 10:37-38) because Jesus’ “vessel” was empty of sin. The apostles, however, did not each receive anyway near the fullness of the spirit of God, since each apostles had varying amounts of sin pre-filled in their ‘vessel’.

It is the spirit of God that empowers a person in their doing of goodness. So, the question to you then is:

• “What was Jesus BEFORE the spirit of God anointed and filled him with power’?

 

[Brian2]

Again, Brian2, this is a mistranslation. We know that the spirit of God came down and anointed Jesus, to make him Christ (‘Christ’, means, ‘the Anointed one’)

The fullness of God’s spirit empowered Jesus (Acts 10:37-38) because Jesus’ “vessel” was empty of sin. The apostles, however, did not each receive anyway near the fullness of the spirit of God, since each apostles had varying amounts of sin pre-filled in their ‘vessel’.

It is the spirit of God that empowers a person in their doing of goodness. So, the question to you then is:

• “What was Jesus BEFORE the spirit of God anointed and filled him with power’?

This seems to have nothing to do with my quote of Colossians 2:8-10.

Nevertheless Jesus was the Christ, anointed and sent by God to earth. He was also anointed with the Holy Spirit as His baptism to start His ministry for which God had sent Him.
As a baby Jesus was the Christ whom Simeon saw.

Luke 2:25 Now there was a man in Jerusalem called Simeon, who was righteous and devout. He was waiting for the consolation of Israel, and the Holy Spirit was on him. 26 It had been revealed to him by the Holy Spirit that he would not die before he had seen the Lord’s Messiah. 27 Moved by the Spirit, he went into the temple courts. When the parents brought in the child Jesus to do for him what the custom of the Law required, 28 Simeon took him in his arms and praised God, saying:
29 “Sovereign Lord, as you have promised,
you may now dismiss your servant in peace.

Jesus was also the Son of God and was that also when He was with the Father at the creation.
Hebrews 1:1 In the past God spoke to our ancestors through the prophets at many times and in various ways, 2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also he made the universe. 3 The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of his being, sustaining all things by his powerful word. After he had provided purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty in heaven. 4 So he became as much superior to the angels as the name he has inherited is superior to theirs.

 

[Brian2]

No, Brian2, I have not missed your fallacious point. Again, you rightly claim that God is Jesus’ spiritual Father (because to be ‘Son’ means ‘He who does the works of the Father’). So how can ‘He who does the works of the Father’ be EQUAL to the Father who gives him the work to do?

Because He has the same nature as His Father.

And, NO PRINCE OWNS what his Father and King owns… UNTIL it is granted to him. And when that which the king owns is granted to him then it is because the king has either died or abdicated … indeed, the authority of the king lies in his throne…. And which Prince has ownership of the kings throne before the king has died or abdicated?

Jesus said John 16:15Everything that belongs to the Father is Mine.
Jesus the Son, the Prince, owns all that the Father has. Do you deny that?

In the UK, Prince Charles has only now become king since the RULING MONARCH, the Queen (Elizabeth II) has just died. He did not OWN the kingship since the queen could easily have granted it to Prince William, SON of Prince Charles!!!

Plus, more than one sons and princes: Charles has TWO sons, the queen has three Sons… they are all PRINCES?

But the angels of Heaven are all PRINCES. So you are saying that the angels, who are ‘Princes’ are the one God, too?:

There are rules as to who would succeed Queen Elizabeth. The only legitimate one is Charles.
Only Jesus is the Son with the same nature as God the Father, (the only begotten) all others are created beings.

 

[Soapy]

Because He has the same nature as His Father.

What has nature got to do with equality?

The work Jesus has done is that which the Father EMPOWERED him to do. Jesus’ ability to perform the work that God gave him to do is because God ‘put his spirit on him’:

• “Behold, My Servant, whom I uphold; My Chosen One in whom My soul delights. I have put My Spirit upon Him; He will bring forth justice to the nations...” (Isaiah 42:1)

Brian2, how can you read this verse and claim against the truth spoken by God and the true apostles:

• “You know what has happened throughout the province of Judea, beginning in Galilee after the baptism that John preached—how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and power, and how he went around doing good and healing all who were under the power of the devil, because God was with him.“ (Acts 10:37-38)

Brian2… GOD anointed Jesus with His spirit. Being anointed with the spirit of God, the verse says, gave Jesus the power to do God’s work. Oh, isn’t that the same as what GOD Himself says in Isaiah 42:1?

And, again, Isaiah 42:1 shows Jesus as being ‘the SERVANT of God… GOD is not a servant…. But you keep calling Jesus ‘GOD’ …almighty God.

You say the prince is the same as the king… really?

Jesus said John 16:15Everything that belongs to the Father is Mine.
Jesus the Son, the Prince, owns all that the Father has. Do you deny that?

That which Jesus has is GRANTED to him AFTER he has accomplished what the Father endowed him with power to do! He did not have that which the Father granted him BEFORE he accomplished.

But, of course you missed out the part where Jesus

• “My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all…” (John 10:29)
• “My Father is greater than I” (John 14:28)

The Father is King; the Son is Prince: Jesus says that the King is greater than the Prince!

Are we to believe you, or Jesus?

There are rules as to who would succeed Queen Elizabeth. The only legitimate one is Charles.
Only Jesus is the Son with the same nature as God the Father, (the only begotten) all others are created beings.

Do you not read scriptures and understand?…
What if the prince regent carries out a crime worthy of death… would he still accede in-line to the throne? No! Absolutely not!!

So, knowing your scriptures: who is the ‘Father of all humanity’? No, not the creator, God, but the one from whom all OTHER humans came…?

Adam.

So Adam WAS, in the day of his creation, holy, sinless, and righteous. He initially carried our all the work God gave him to do …. A perfect SON OF GOD in the flesh - the very image of God! (‘In [God’s] image he created [him]’).

But the PRINCE committed a heinous crime and brought doom on mankind by sinning and disobeying his spiritual Father, YHWH.

Yes, Brian2, the prince regent (Adam) was removed from his position, and…. guess what…?

A second holy, sinless, and righteous man was created in the image of God…. A ‘SECOND ADAM’, indeed, the ‘LAST ADAM’… Jesus, anointed Christ when he proved to be a perfect Son to God:

• “And a voice from heaven said, “This is my Son, whom I love; with him I am well pleased.” (Matt 3:17)

Isn’t that what God prophesied in Isaiah 42:1?

((If prince Andrew was regent and committed the unadmitted crimes reported, would he still be crowned King, today? Indeed, who would accept him?))