(I Will respond to this post in 3 or 4 independent comments) and whithin few days.......
Well that atleast some of the disciples saw something that they interpreted as having seen the risen jesus is an uncontrovertial fact accepted by most scholars.
If your position is so strong why would you find the need to misrepresent scholars? Theologians start with the assumption the Bible is true so that is so incredibly bias it doesn't help the argument.
Historians understand the stories about people seeing a resurrected Jesus are folktale stories, not history. The text is not written as history its
written as historical fiction. A popular Greek school writing style.
No historian things these tales represent anything that actually happened.
Obviously not all scholars claim a physical resurection, but that the disciples *saw something * that they interpreted as having seen the risen jesus (perhaps a dream or a hallucination) is accepted by most scholars.
Zero historical scholars accept the gospel stories as anything except folk tales placed in real places. Again, the consensus is the Gospels Matthew and Luke are 100% a rewrite of Mark. A creative rewrite making political, religious and other changes that the new author saw fit.
John most likely also used the older Gospels as a source. Each rewrite made Jesus more and more into God and more supernatural.
You don't even study the historical scholars?
Scholars accept this Mainly for 3 reasons :
1 we have the testimony of Paul, who reported 6 aperances of the risen Jesus (+his own) Paul is someone who knew the witnesses of these apperances. So he had access to first hand testimony.
Those are apologetics which all historians consider crank. What they also know is Paul claims VISIONS of Jesus. Not Jesus in a body.
2 some of the aperances that Paul reports where independently attested by other sources. The aperance to Paul is reported in Acts, the aperance to the 12 disiples (except for Judas) in John and Luke, the aperance to Peter in Luke ....+ We also have independent witness to Galilean appearances in Mark, Matthew, and John, as well as to the women in Matthew and John
No historian considers those independent sources. Mark definitely used Paul to make his narrative.
Dozens of examples from journal papers are here:
Many studies have argued the Gospel that came to be labeled “according to Mark” based some of its content on the Epistles of Paul. Here I’ll discuss this scholarship and its evidence. “Mark” is of course the earliest Gospel we have any surviving text or even any real evidence of. It was then...
www.richardcarrier.info
The other Gospels you mention are just using Mark and making changes and keeping some stuff. This is so well known and the arguments and evidence for this is incredibly strong.
For example here:
The Synoptic Problem | Bible.org
Acts is the most fictive of all of them. It's literally a shipwreck narrative and follows The
Odyssey in so many ways.
I'll have to transcribe some of this discussion where he explains how ridiculous Acts is:
The women are in Mark because he has one particular theme running through the story - the least shall be the first. So he has women see Jesus first. It's a story. Matthew and John get this from Mark. Read the arguments and reasons why scholars know the other Gospels are rewrites of Mark.
You are preaching tired old apologetics that scholars who do actual research do not buy. Ehrman was asked about apologetics and he said it's all the same and it's been answered and debunked for a long time. Everything.
3 explanatory power: the apperancess explain why Paul and James converted to Christianity....,
Paul was Jewish and saw a new cult that he could be a big fish in. The visions were probably added flare. In religious tales a person meets a demigod and of course they are going to convert? It's exactly how a religious story would be presented to get people to buy into it.
Why the apostoles had a stronger faith after Jesus died,
No, Paul said they did. He's selling a cult, of course he's saying things like this.
and it explains why the early church flurished so fast ,
Oh wow. Do you care about what is true at all? The entire 2nd century was 50% Gnostic sects. It didn't grow until Rome adopted it.
........... from the point of view of a first century Jew, Jesus was a failed messiah, he didnt meet the mesianic expectatations from that time, a crusified meassiah was an absurd and self refuting idea from their point of view. .... so unless something extraordinary happened after his dead, the flurishment of this new church would have had no sense. ..... the aperances explain all these three mysteries..
And it just so happens that Hellenistic savior deities provide salvation by undergoing a passion, sometimes even death before resurrecting and passing salvation onto followers. Judaism was the last to adopt the model. They would not have admitted it was Greek, they would have presented it as Gods plan all along and of course God is Jewish so this is the correct version.
Mark also rewrote the basics of the Romulus story but inverted it into a peaceful savior rather than a militant savior. His excellent metaphor for Passover and Yom Kippur using Barrabas and Jesus as the scape goats - one is set free and one is killed for the sins of Israel was brilliant.
A) Paul and James converted because they saw something that they interpreted as having seen the risen Jesus.
Paul liked the new sect, it also happened to be a trend and started in Antioch, the place were Hellenism is strongest. Not a coincidence.
Paul saw a sect he could play a bigger role in is one probable option.
B) Peter and the disciples had more faith than ever before because they saw something that they interpreted as having seen the risen jesus
So the myth says. Prince Arjuna also believes in Krishna way more after he came down and gave him wisdom.
C) the early church flurished because thausans of people granted such apperances.
They did not. No record of any such thing from any historian at the time. It's in the story, which is folk tales.
The early church was half Gnostic. Now why would that be? Maybe because there was no actual true event that happened, it's just whatever version someone felt stronger towards?
Modern Christianity did not start until the end of the 2nd century and was refined by Rome.
If you reject the historicity of the apperances , what other alternative explanation do you suggest for points A B and C.?
You don't need a reason for someone converting to a religion because people do it by the billions. Paul however already bought into Judaism and it already had been Hellenized. He came in contact with the center of Hellenism and now gets to have a Hellenistic version of Judaism that is appealing to people for obvious reasons.
You say this like there cannot be any other reason why Paul would convert. Thousands of Christians have converted to Islam and vice cersa. Or Hinduism or whatever. Why would this be weird just this one time?
For C, the "church" did not flourish. The first official canon, Marcionite is unknown, so you don't know what was first. The Gnostic sects were all different and bizarre. Why did that get so huge? Half was Gnostic. So you hand wave off 50% of false Christianity becoming popular but then take the other 50% and use it as some claim that since THAT version also grew in popularity it MUST be true. But the Gnostic sects also grew? This isn't even logic in any sense. It's just a mess of confirmation bias and doing history with your hands over your eyes and ears.
Your point says Gnosticism must be true because it grew, but it's not true. Therefore neither does any other version.
Even Gert L¸demann, the leading German critic of the resurrection, himself admits, “It may be taken as historically certain that Peter and the disciples had experiences after Jesus’ death in which Jesus appeared to them as the risen Christ.” Gerd L¸demann, What Really Happened to Jesus?, trans. John Bowden (Louisville, Kent.: Westminster John Knox Press, 1995), p. 80.
Gerd Lüdemann is Professor of New Testament. He doesn't do history and like many NT scholars bought into th eidea that the NT was history. AS historians have been demonstrating, it is not history.
So rejecting the historicity of the apperances requires you to explain, why you think that so many top scholars are wrong. What do you know that they are missing ?
Because "top scholars" you mention are theologians or NT scholars and take many assumptions to be true. They cannot entertain the idea that history shows us this is all a trend, already happening in other nations, all coming from Hellenism. Historians can read all the original sources and are not hung up on the fact that if you do impartial history it's very easy to see what Christianity really is. A Jewish version of Greek mythology.
all of these appearances are in the Gospels which are rewrites on Mark. Mark is fiction, more fictive than Lord of the Rings in terms of parables, literary devices and so on. There are 20 close parallels to the Romulus narrative, and evidence of borrowing many other narratives and making them into Jesus stories. Like the Kings tales.
You don't have to "explain" tales from folk stories set in a high level historical fiction. It's fiction? Not real.
No ancient historian ever mentions anything except there are Christians who follow the gospels. One said it was harmless superstition after investigating.
This is like someone saying Froto Baggins is real because of multiple sightings, all independent. The Elf, the king, Gandolf, Sam, they ALL saw him. Even the Orcs saw and touched Froto. How could all this evidence not prove he's real?
If LOTR was ancient more people may have written their own version. Then you would have so many sightings, how could you ever explain all that?????
That is exactly what you are doing.