3) is false as there is no oldest state. In an infinite sequence, there is No Oldest State. It does not exist.Your claim of a repetition fallacy is demonstrably false.
You never provided valid counter arguments to my arguments in any case where I repeated an argument. My conclusions still stand as valid because you never tried to refute it. You just ignored it. Therefore, if I have repeated anything, it is only so that you will address what I argued instead of committing the fallacy of "ignoring the issue".
In order for something to qualify as a fallacy of repetition, someone must ignore valid counter arguments and simply repeat their refuted argument - something which you are the one one to have done between the two of us.
You cannot quote any instance of me doing such a thing.
Your response demonstrates you don't even understand the nature of the infinite regress issue much less how to form a counter argument against it.
If you did understand it, you wouldn't think you could rebut the issue by saying "we don't need to worry how we got here because there was never a beginning".
I can try explaining this for you again, but more simply:
1. Our current state depends on a previous state to bring us to this point.
2. Each previous state depends on another state preceding it.
3. If our current state existing depends on traveling through all the previous states to get here, and the oldest state is an infinite amount of changes ago, then it would take an infinity to reach our current state.
4. We would never reach our current state because it is impossible to go through an infinite a state changes to reach a given state. As infinity, by definition, never ends.
The really bizarre thing here is you think that saying "we don't have a beginning" solves the problem.
Not having a beginning makes the problem worse for you - because there's literally no end point to the infinite past so it's literally impossible to reach the present.
That's why you only solve the problem of an impossible infinite regress by having a beginning.
Your response fails to understand the nature of the problem and falls under the fallacy of "not even wrong". Meaning, not only is it not a right answer, it's not even a wrong answer, because it fails to understand the nature of the issue at stake and what would constitute a valid true of false answer to the question.
Your definition of entropy doesn't disprove anything I argued. As such, it is a fallacy of irrelevant conclusion. You have demonstrated no relevance.
Your definition is also false by way of what it omits. Entropy is when energy based order/structure breaks down until everything reaches equilibrium.
There are many problems with your claim.
1. You don't solve the infinite regress problem of our current state depending on an infinity of prior states, which would make the current state impossible to reach.
2. You have given no actual reasons for why you think a bounce cosmology can avoid entropy. Saying "because planck scale" isn't a reason. It's merely an assertion. So your answer constitutes a fallacy of argument by assertion because you are merely asserting that some magic happens with bounce cosmology to make it violate the 2nd law of thermodynamics without giving any attempt at explaining how or why you think that would be justified.
The hawking-hartle model has a beginning singularity point - so it doesn't solve anything for you.
Instead of having a sharp point singularity it's simply a curved model like lines of longitude meeting at a point on the south pole.
The idea that the singularity disappears is based on converting the equation to use imaginary numbers to make time disappear but if you leave the equation in that state then it no longer reflects reality so it's not useful for describing anything about our reality.
When you convert it back to real numbers, which is necessary for the equation to mean anything to reality, the singularity reappears.
This is a perfect example of why your previous claim was false that just because something is mathematically valid that it must reflect reality.
Your argument is therefore invalid.
Secondly time is defined through change of states. There is nothing that is moving through time at all. Each state is an independent existence whose properties are correlated with states in its localty which we call 'past' states. That is all that is. There is no classical independent entity called TIME in which change occurs. That much is quite clear. Hence these classical arguments about movement through time are all wrong.
Your definition of entropy is scientific nonsense. I recommend a book on Statistical Thermodynamics to understand what entropy is in the first place. To repeat, the concept of entropy is a statistical property that exists only when a system can be said to have large scale macroscopic properties that supervene on microscopic structures. It's not a fundamental property like charge/mass etc. and such cannot exist in a system that is entirely microscopic in nature, as is expected from Planck level physics. So every instance of a contraction space-time into realms where Planck level scales become important, the concept of entropy itself will disappear.
Statistical Entropy
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