Judging unfairly is patently "unchristian." The bible has no morals of its own; it reflects the morals of the people who wrote it. It's "job" is to provide an underpinning of tradition for us to use to help in interpreting our own experiences with the Divine.
"Moral authority?" Let me throw this back at you: On what moral authority do Xtians suppose that the bible is against homosexuality? Truth is, the bible isn't "for" or "against" anything. Its writers have their biases -- as well as its readers. But since the bible is an inanimate object, it is unable to form opinions of its own; it merely states what the writers wrote.
The "moral authority" comes from a study of and adherence to Christian principles, as portrayed in the bible, in extra-biblical writings, in the teachings of the church, and from a study of scientific, sociological, psychological, and cultural disciplines.
The belief that "the bible is against homosexuality" is a particular interpretation based on one's own beliefs.
Justification is a red herring.
What filter do you think that might be? It might be a filter of common sense, realizing that the ancients didn't have all the information they needed to make the claims they make. It might be a filter of study, learning not to impose ancient thinking onto modern context. It might be a filter of exegesis, learning to read out of the text what was actually meant, and then temper that thought to the modern context. It might be a filter of fact, whereby certain biblical claims can be proven wrong. It might be a filter of priority, whereby one weighs seemingly obtuse statements against the preponderance of statements that form the overarching message of the texts, themselves.
Judging unfairly is patently "unchristian.
And the definition of fair as well as christian is subject to personal interpretation.
The bible has no morals of its own; it reflects the morals of the people who wrote it.
This is semantics essentially. The bible contains moral positions within it.
Let me throw this back at you: On what moral authority do Xtians suppose that the bible is against homosexuality?
Well I suppose they would use bible passages as the moral authority--particularly those from Leviticus, Corinthians, and Romans. I'll cite passages if need be but you seem to have a good amount of knowledge about the Christianity in general. Now on what authority would Christians determine that the bible isn't against homosexuality?
Truth is, the bible isn't "for" or "against" anything.
If it reflects the morals of those who wrote it, then it was intended to be for or against some things. This is mostly just semantics again. Saying the bible is against something is basically saying the authors intended the bible to reflect a moral position against something. Its just short hand. Its like saying "This essay is clearly against abortion."
And anyways, one would hope it would be against genocide, or slavery, or scapegoats, or stoning adulterating women, etc but you're right its not explicitly against those things.
But since the bible is an inanimate object, it is unable to form opinions of its own; it merely states what the writers wrote.
No way? The bible is inanimate? And it doesn't have a brain? News to me. This is just playing off the semantics. Everything written states what the writers wrote. Its a tautology and I fail to see how this is arguing against my position at all. I find it strange that you're implying that I thought the bible was capable of coming to its own conclusions regarding morality. I don't think I ever claimed that the bible has a brain or artificial intelligence but quote me if im wrong.
The "moral authority" comes from a study of and adherence to Christian principles, as portrayed in the bible, in extra-biblical writings, in the teachings of the church, and from a study of scientific, sociological, psychological, and cultural disciplines.
And people who study these things come to radically different conclusions because much is ambiguous and much depends on an individual's personality. Its certainly not a reliable moral authority. Plus it all depends on moral relativism and the society/time period; this shows that not only is even more unreliable, but that the basis for such morals comes from secular society and rational thought rather than from an ancient book. This is also where confirmation bias comes into play.
The belief that "the bible is against homosexuality" is a particular interpretation based on one's own beliefs.
IDK, its pretty hard to misinterpret this:
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Leviticus 20:13 ESV / 693 helpful votes
If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination; they shall surely be put to death; their blood is upon them."
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1 Corinthians 6:9-11 ESV / 971 helpful votes
Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men who practice homosexuality, nor thieves, nor the greedy, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God."
There are a variety of other passages as well. Based on what the bible says, its perfectly reasonable for a Christian to come to the conclusion that homosexuality is an abomination. So its based on the bible as well as ones beliefs.
What filter do you think that might be? It might be a filter of common sense, realizing that the ancients didn't have all the information they needed to make the claims they make. It might be a filter of study, learning not to impose ancient thinking onto modern context. It might be a filter of exegesis, learning to read out of the text what was actually meant, and then temper that thought to the modern context. It might be a filter of fact, whereby certain biblical claims can be proven wrong. It might be a filter of priority, whereby one weighs seemingly obtuse statements against the preponderance of statements that form the overarching message of the texts, themselves.
Saying something is common sense assumes you know what common sense is in the first place. Most people for instance would not think that an object can be in two places at once, but it occurs all the time in the world of the quantum. Common sense can in fact be inherently deceptive.
But anyways, I have no idea what filter it might be. It could be a combination of those, or a bunch you didn't put down. It all depends on the person, the time period, and society. The filters are problematic because it means that you have determined what filters allow you to make a valid interpretation based on some authority. Ancient people considered their filters and interpretations to be very good. 1000 years from now, its likely that our current interpretations and filters will be considered ignorant and invalid.