Oh, OK. I get it. Yes, courts often use the phrase "dilute" [the vote or the power of a political group].
So what do you think of the "efficiency gap" calculation? Is that a way to determine an unconstitutional partisan gerrymander?
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How Can One Determine an Instance of Partisan Gerrymandering?
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So what do you think of the "efficiency gap" calculation? Is that a way to determine an unconstitutional partisan gerrymander?
I agree with what I read of the Chen Rodden paper, very interesting.
The EG does appear to be a way to actually prove whether a certain group is over represented and prevent over representation of seats.