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but most theologians as well as genealogists agree that adam was created about 6000 years ago. that was on the 6th day.
how do you justify that with your interpretation of the length of "a day"?
According to Quran ,Adam(pbuh) was sent Earth after the creation Earth(time isn't mentioned) so not at sixth day
The verse mentions Arabic word 'Yaum' which means long period /epoch . You can use online Arabic dictionary to check it up
it could be 50,000 years or one billion or anything,
period isn't fixed in Quran , but if the Quran specificly mentions 1000/50000 years in the context ,it has to be used for that context only
I already showed you where early islamic tafsirs interpreted these verses to mean 6,000 years.
Bowman said:The purpose is to show the age of the Universe.
Bowman said:Again...I already showed where tafsirs state the very same thing.
Bowman said:They obviously came to this conclusion hundreds of years before I did.
jarofthoughts, thank you for your well-thought out reply. Unfortunately, I think we are at an impasse. You believe that science makes a positive statement upon absence of evidence: This does not exist. I believe that science defers judgement, or rather, makes no judgement, on that which has no evidence: Basically, science says "no comment".
That is the position that defers judgement, until there is a case.Science says that unless you have evidence you have no case.
That's not science, though.And until you do, whatever claims you make are worthless. Period.
That is the position that defers judgement, until there is a case.
And I disagree. I'm with Falvlun in asserting that science makes no positive claims, such as "non-existence," until there are claims to be made (supported by a case).I said in an earlier post that the scientific position is to assume non-existence until evidence of existence is produced. Which means that gods, ghosts, unicorns and big-foot are all in the same box. They are assumed not to exist.
And I disagree. I'm with Falvlun in asserting that science makes no positive claims, such as "non-existence," until there are claims to be made (supported by a case).
Ah, perhaps that's where the confusion lies. To assume a thing is to posit it. For science to assume non-existence is for it to make a positive claim, in other words proceeding on the basis that "these things do not exist." I don't believe science could, does, or should make that assumption. If it did, that's not science.I never said it made a positive claim such as "X does not exist".
In a scientific sense something is either relevant or it is not.
You either take it in as a factor in your equation or you do not.
And in the case of reality, of which science is so far the best tool we have for figuring out what's what, you do not factor in things like the supernatural because there is no evidence for its existence. Hence, for the sake of our "equation", meaning scientific reality, meaning the physical world, these things are not relevant. Hence, it is assumed that they do not exist.
Ah, perhaps that's where the confusion lies. To assume a thing is to posit it. For science to assume non-existence is for it to make a positive claim, in other words proceeding on the basis that "these things do not exist." I don't believe science could, does, or should make that assumption. If it did, that's not science.
For instance, does a scientist go out into the woods assessing wildlife on the assumption that Bigfoot doesn't exist? No. They go out assessing wildlife with (hopefully) a blank slate attitude, and if they run into Bigfoot great, and if they don't, great.
Not relevant = judgement deferred.
I have only one small problem with the wording... there, fixed. Now we can agree.The point I was trying to make earlier (perhaps clumsily so) was that nothing, according to science, exists until there is evidence that it does. It is not a factor. It is irrelevant.
And that means that big-foot, in a scientific sense, does not exist until we have evidence that it does, at which point it becomes relevant, and after which science steps in.
Which, I'm sure you'll agree, is one of science's greatest strengths.
So you admit that there is ambiguity in the verse.
(Otherwise, why rely upon an "interpretation" and not the verse itself? Precisely because the word in question can be translated so many different ways: day, period, eon, etc.)
Which brings me back to my original and fundamental question: Why should that particular interpretation be the only valid one?
You sidestepped my point. The point of the entire passage (at least how it reads to me) is not to show the age of the universe, but to show the vastness of God.
I have only one small problem with the wording... there, fixed. Now we can agree.
Ostensibly. Unless it isn't.But do you agree that claims that are not backed by evidence does not in any useful manner matter to science and therefore for all practical purposes are ignored, and hence does not in a scientific sense exist?
Ostensibly. Unless it isn't.