But Paul is explicit ─ he's only a human in 'form'; at no point is his divine nature in doubt in Paul's mind.
Only Mark's Jesus could be called a 'normal human being'.
of course not. He had resurrected by that point and, as with so many other situations that the Apostles understood what Jesus said
AFTER the resurrection and not before.
That's a wholly tendentious paraphrase ─ I won't call it a translation. Anyway, the relevant words are ἐν μορφῇ θεοῦ ─ 'in the form of a god'. μορφῇ could also be translated as 'shape', 'figure, 'appearance'. 'in the form of God' would be ἐν μορφῇ τῶ θεοῦ.
οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ ─ as the RSV puts it, 'did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped'. In other words, yet again the meaning is entirely different to the paraphrase you offer.
I disagree completely and not to mention you ignored all other scriptures of support. On purpose? Or by accident?
Who being in the form of God
The Father; being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person. This form is to be understood, not of any shape or figure of him; for as such is not to be seen, it is not to be supposed of him; or any accidental form, for there are no accidents in God, whatever is in God, is God; he is nothing but nature and essence, he is the (to on) , the Jehovah, I am what I am; and so is his Son, which is, and was, and is to come, the fountain of all created beings nor does it intend any outward representation and resemblance of him, such as in kings; who, because of the honour and dignity they are raised unto, the authority and power they have, and because of the glory and majesty they are arrayed with, are called gods: nor does it design the state and condition Christ appeared in here on earth, having a power to work miracles, heal diseases, and dispossess devils, for the manifestation of his glory; and so might be said to be in the form of God, as Moses for doing less miracles is said to be a God unto Pharaoh; since this account does not regard Christ; as he was on earth in human nature, but what he was antecedent to the assumption of it; or otherwise his humility and condescension in becoming man, and so mean, will not appear: but this phrase, "the form of God", is to be understood of the nature and essence of God, and describes Christ as he was from all eternity; just as the form of a servant signifies that he was really a servant, and the fashion of a man in which he was found means that he was truly and really man; so his being in the form of God intends that he was really and truly God; that he partook of the same nature with the Father, and was possessed of the same glory: from whence it appears, that he was in being before his incarnation; that he existed as a distinct person from God his Father, in whose form he was, and that as a divine person, or as truly God, being in the glorious form, nature, and essence of God; and that there is but one form of God, or divine nature and essence, common to the Father and the Son, and also to the Spirit; so that they are not three Gods, but one God: what the form of God is, the Heathens themselves
F7 say cannot be comprehended nor seen, and so not to be inquired after; and they use the same word the apostle does here
F8: and now Christ being in this glorious form, or having the same divine nature with the Father, with all the infinite and unspeakable glories of it,
thought it no robbery to be equal with God;
the Father; for if he was in the same form, nature, and essence, he must be equal to him, as he is; for he has the same perfections, as eternity, omniscience, omnipotence, omnipresence, immutability, and self-existence: hence he has the same glorious names, as God, the mighty God, the true God, the living God, God over all, Jehovah, the Lord of glory the same works of creation and providence are ascribed to him, and the same worship, homage, and honour given him: to be "in the form of God", and to be "equal with God", signify the same thing, the one is explanative of the other: and this divine form and equality, or true and proper deity, he did not obtain by force and rapine, by robbery and usurpation, as Satan attempted to do, and as Adam by his instigation also affected; and so the mind of a wicked man, as Philo the Jew says
F9, being a lover of itself and impious, (oiomenov isov) (einai yew) , "thinks itself to be equal with God", a like phrase with this here used; but Christ enjoyed this equality by nature; he thought, he accounted, he knew he had it this way; and he held it hereby, and of right, and not by any unlawful means; and he reckoned that by declaring and showing forth his proper deity, and perfect equality with the Father, he robbed him of no perfection; the same being in him as in the Father, and the same in the Father as in him; that he did him no injury, nor deprived him of any glory, or assumed that to himself which did not belong to him: as for the sense which some put upon the words, that he did not "affect", or "greedily catch" at deity; as the phrase will not admit of it, so it is not true in fact; he did affect deity, and asserted it strongly, and took every proper opportunity of declaring it, and in express terms affirmed he was the Son of God; and in terms easy to be understood declared his proper deity, and his unity and equality with the Father; required the same faith in himself as in the Father, and signified that he that saw the one, saw the other, (
Mark 14:61 Mark 14:62 ) (
John 5:17 John 5:18 ) (
John 10:30 John 10:33 ) (
John 14:1 John 14:10 ) . Others give this as the sense of them, that he did not in an ostentatious way show forth the glory of his divine nature, but rather hid it; it is true, indeed, that Christ did not seek, but carefully shunned vain glory and popular applause; and therefore often after having wrought a miracle, would charge the persons on whom it was wrought, or the company, or his disciples, not to speak of it; this he did at certain times, and for certain reasons; yet at other times we find, that he wrought miracles to manifest forth his glory, and frequently appeals to them as proofs of his deity and Messiahship: and besides, the apostle is speaking not of what he was, or did in his incarnate state, but of what he was and thought himself to be, before he became man; wherefore the above sense is to be preferred as the genuine one.
FOOTNOTES:
F7 Socraticus, Xenophon, & Aristo Chius, apud Minuc. Felic. Octav. p. 20. & Hostanes apud Caecil. Cyprian. de Idol. van. p. 46.
F8 Laertii proem. ad Vit. Philosoph. p. 7.
F9 Leg. Alleg. l. 1. p. 48, 49.
John Gill
Come now! Adam's biology was, in the fable, created from dust, and Eve was created from Adam's rib; we might conjecture she had Adam's DNA minus his Y-chromosome, but biologically she's billed as a female H sap sap. If Mary conceives via the Ghost, the biology has to be addressed, and since Mary didn't have a Y-chromosome, the Ghost had to provide one, along with all the other genetic material customary in a spermatazoon to form the zygote.
And since this makes the Jesuses of Matthew and Luke the 'son of God', it has to God the Father's DNA that the Ghost provides.
1) Have you proven it to be a fable? Not to me.
2) Adam was created... did God need to have a human DNA or did He create human DNA
3) Did God create biology? How did He create it?
Mary conceives of the Holy Ghost and gives birth to Jesus. That's entirely biological. Please address the question ─ whose Y-chromosome did the Jesuses of Matthew and Luke have?
So, when Lazarus was resurrected it is biological? Is a spirit biological?
Yes, something along those lines ─ something Mark's human might do but not Matthew's or Luke's genetic Son of God, or Paul's or John's pre-existing heavenly being. Yet there it is in the gospels. It's abusive, dismissive, contemptuous, weird, and it may (or may not) be the only persuasive evidence of an historical Jesus the NT contains.
Those comments are quite weird as I read them.
OK... we have established that you believe it is a fable with no proof. Doesn't make you wrong and me right, but it also doesn't make you right and me wrong,
You are looking everything via physical which made me look your profile up as "non-theistic" which leads me to wonder if you believe there is a spiritual side of thing. (probably not?)
You omit every other statement where Jesus was God... at this point leading me to believe that you simply ignored it but do agree that he was an ordinary man (which some in the Gospels believed that too)
If above is true, I can understand why there is not connection in our discussion which is fine. You have every right to believe what you believe and I support that right.
Enjoyed the discussion Blu
Peace.