ArtieE kindly provided a great example for you
"(
historical) Absence of belief in a particular deity, pantheon, or religious doctrine (
notwithstanding belief in other deities). [
[3], HarperCollins,
ISBN 9780060653385, keyword Domitilla, Flavia, page 431:
Domitilla, Flavia, niece of the emperor Domitian (81-96). She and her husband, Flavius Clemens (consul in 95 and cousin of Domitian),
were probably Christians; charged with
atheism and
adoption of Jewish ways, they were punished (95) with death (Clemens) and exile (Domitilla).
This is the atheist who is also a theist (actually the
very original use of the term). If your religious views are not orthodox enough, or your loyalty is to the wrong god, then you could be accused of atheism as you are without (the right) gods.
Until maybe 200-300 years ago, the term atheist was always pejorative, an insult to be flung at the impious or followers of the wrong gods. As far as I am aware, only during the enlightenment did people start to self-identify as atheists in any numbers.
You seem to have a problem understanding the broad vs. narrow sense of the word. Wikipedia is your friend.
Greek:
Atheism: Without god(s)
Hard to beat the original.
No problem at all. After 1500 posts you really should understand the basics by now though.
So we should go with the original? The kind of atheist that is often a theist you mean? (see above)
Anyway, the original was a- theos, now add -ism to this and what do you get? Without god(s) -ism, the principle (i.e. belief) of being without god(s)
Flew was proposing a reinterpretation as a-(theism), instead of (athe)ism.
Yeah, more or less. It was sort of a "lost" definition I suppose. At that time people were almost exclusively using "atheist" as an assertive stance. All Flew really did was correct that.
No. As he himself clearly states (and is supported by the history of the word), he was proposing a new usage. It was not a rediscovery. The concept had been proposed before, it just was never a common usage.
You misunderstood that he was talking about how the a- prefix is commonly applied in
other words, not in the word atheism itself. He said we should use the word atheism in this way, not because it was the 'original' meaning of atheism, but because he believed it was advantageous to use it in this way.
There is nothing wrong with this, he perceived it as correcting a bias inherent in the term. He is honest that he is redefining the term away from its original meaning for this very reason. It is also legitimate that people honestly disagree with him though.
The problem here is that many people in this thread are unaware of this, and think that people using the traditional definition are the ones redefining the term. Anyone who disagrees with 'lack of belief and babies are atheists' is presumed to be a moron who can't understand a very basic point. As such, if they are shouted at enough then they will eventually see the light. Then people indulge in some theistic conspiracy theories and cod psychology about such people being mindlessly in thrall to honouring theism, even if they don't realise it.
This is the genesis of the a(theism) definition, a normative interpretation of what the word atheist
should mean, based on how a- is used in other words and an assumption that a- applies to theism.
This is what I've been saying.