And as for the second, "I see no evidence to support the existence of any gods" is not evidence.
That would depend. If the "god hypothesis" should have evidence, while there is no evidence, then that absence of evidence becomes evidence of absence.
Take the YEC claims for example of the biblical global flood 4000 years ago with massive near-extinction of all species.
This SHOULD leave evidence in both the genetic as well as the geological record.
The absence of this evidence then becomes evidence of absence of said flood.
Before 1930, not a single person saw evidence to support the existence of Pluto. Does that mean it came into existence in 1930?
No. It means that before 1930, there was no reason to accept the claim that it existed (eventhough it did).
This is also something I frequently see as being misunderstood.
The
rational position is not necessarily the
correct factual outcome.
This is why things are usually accepted / rejected
tentatively, leaving the door open for future evidence to change ones mind.
I like to give the example of geocentrism vs heliocentrism.
There was a time in the past when virtually nothing was known about stars, celestial bodies, the solar system, etc...
The only "data" at our disposal at that point, was pretty much the following:
- the earth feels stationary
- the earth feels immovable
- the sun "comes up" (we still us that phrase....) at one side, moves across the sky, and sets at the other side.
If those are the only observations at your disposal, then the rational position would be that the sun orbits the earth instead of the other way round.
It is the wrong answer, but it is the rational position - given the data you have.
Eris in 2005? So before 1930, would the claim, "There are no [dwarf] planets orbiting the sun beyond Neptune" have been valid?
Not sure if I would call it "valid". But as a position, it would be consistent with the evidence.
Having said that, and tying into the main OP point, I think that word "no" makes it a rather useless claim.
I have difficulty with negative claims in terms of merrit, especially if those negative claims are based only on lack of evidence.
Now, it becomes a different story if somebody claims that there ARE such dwarf planets AND if that hypothesis makes verifiable predictions AND no evidence is found for those predictions while according to the hypothesis that evidence SHOULD exist.
Then, we can say that the hypothesis has been falsified. At which point we would default to the stance that such planets don't exist (at least not in the form / way described by the hypothesis).
Just like we default to the position that no biblical flood occured 4000 years ago. Not merely because there is "no evidence", but rather because there is no evidence
while there should be evidence!
So to sum up, those "negative claims" are produced by
testable positive claims which are shown false after testing.
When it comes to gods however, the positive claims aren't testable. So no evidence can exist by definition.
Those are, imo, useless claims.
And the negative counterparts even more so.
To the point that I would say "why bother making those claims?"
And, just like how in court we default to "not guilty" when guilt can't be shown... I then just default to "non existence" of undetectable gods.
You could say that I rule god to be "not guilty" of existing.
If you make a claim, the onus is on you to provide evidence of that claim if you want that claim to be taken seriously by others.
Disagree? State your case below.
I agree. I just disagree that that evidence can't consist of "lack of evidence" of the positive counter part of said claim.
I can say "no biblical flood occured 4000 years ago".
And my evidence for that claim, is the absence of the evidence that SHOULD exist, if that flood did occur.