I don’t misuse them. I quote them verbatim. I’m only guilty of misuse if they are wrong, or I’ve deliberately altered them in some way. If they give an example of God threatening or using evil then I’ve used them legitimately to support my argument. Those passages say what they say and can’t be unsaid.
I assume you're a smart chap. When reading ancient, translated, heavily-edited texts such as these, one has to do at least
some exegesis in order to understand what the texts really mean. If they give an example of God as threatening or "using evil," we need to get at the theological and cultural reasons why they give those examples. Surely you can't mean to say that you're treating the Bible like some kind of history textbook?! A cursory and surface reading of
any text like that, and then basing a theological statement upon the validity of such reading does constitute a misuse of the text. Lots of Christians do it, too, but that doesn't make it right.
Let me explain for the umpteenth time. The problem of evil exists because theists want to say God is the epitome of goodness. Now, you could quote 999 examples of goodness, mercy and compassion, but I only have to give one instance of evil to demonstrate a contradiction. The 999 positive examples cannot negate a single negative one. This will be the case whether as factual existence or as written words.
If the Bible were a simple textbook, only giving raw and irrefutable data, you would be correct. But the Bible is not that sort of text. That's why it must undergo, in the exegesis, a process of weighing what is more important information and what is less. It is precisely because of the overwhelming communication of God as ultimate good that we must lend those statements pertaining to evil much less weight. The Bible is theological truth, not raw fact.
Missing the point. The problem of evil concerns the concept of identity as a God who is pure love. There never has been any dispute or argument concerning a God who is sometimes loving and sometimes not. Indeed, God can be both good and evil without contradiction.
I understand that. That's why it's problematic. But it can't be so easily explained away as "sometimes God is good and sometimes not." We have to look deeper than that. Using theology to help us understand God also requires that we use theology to understand why evil exists when God is ultimate good. A "good/bad" God has no apparent contradictions, but if we were to study the matter theologically, a "good/bad" God ultimately causes more problems than it solves. Problem is that you're forcing the existence of evil to be the absolute in the equation. Theology tells us that a good God is the absolute in the equation. All else relates to that in some way, and takes a back seat to that in some way.
It is entirely irrelevant to the problem of evil how believers interact with God or how they gain an overall picture. In fact it may very well be the case that on balance God is for good rather than for evil. But the quoted passages illuminate examples where evil acts or intentions are stated, and that is all that is required to make the point.
See above. As I've shown, it isn't all that's required. We also need to figure out who, why, intended audience, language and cultural idiosyncracies, etc.
I’m afraid they do. As mentioned previously a single example proves the contradiction.
No. No, Cottage. No. They don't.
Very clearly God’s love doesn’t include all humanity. In fact I think you’d have a difficult job to show God has taken care of any aspect of humanity.
Based upon what? I don't think that statement is clearly borne out at all. I think you'd have a difficult job to show that God is ambivalent toward any aspect of humanity.
You will now no doubt say that suffering is the only proof you need. Again, the presence of suffering isn't the primary consideration here.
Then I invite you to explain how the problem has been settled? If it were settled there would be an argument or proof to contrary. So let’s hear it? And you do not deal with the problem at all, but only offer responses apologetically.
Oh, I deal with it every single day! The formal study of theodicy really isn't an area of focus for me, but I believe it has to do with God giving us the freedom to experience all of life, including our own power to do as we choose.
So if we’ve established what Godly love is to your satisfaction, then why do we not see it? Where is this unconditional, unremitting love that God has for his creation? Why do people suffer if they are genuinely cared for?
You're really hung up on this, aren't you? Don't you imagine that there is comfort given, strength afforded, viewpoints sharpened, and resolve bolstered through the process of suffering? Don't you suppose that deep meaning can come about through the process of suffering, and when the suffering is over the grace of new life is granted? I can imagine no more meaningless or boring existence than life being all happy and fluff and getting what we want when we want it.
In order to temper steel, you have to heat it up and beat the crap out of it with a big hammer. Ultimately, the human spirit works the same way. We are tested through our suffering.
You are now doubtless going to say that "God didn't have to make the world work that way."
We can suppose all day long. At the end of the day, all we know is that this is the way the world is, creation was deemed "good" by a Creator who knows "good" better than anyone else, and that we're better for the grace that comes as a result of living through it.
If I may remind you that your argument is that Godly love is a relationship, two-way traffic in other words. But unbelievers do not love God; therefore there can be no relationship, which means there cannot be a loving God as there is no relationship. (I’m simply applying your reasoning, btw.)
sometimes the relationship is one-way. But it
is relationship, nonetheless.
This is about stated words and not theological special pleading.
Smoke and mirrors. It must be argued theologically, because it is theology. the "stated words" have to be exegeted and then a theological construct applied.
I saying the entire redemption thing is illogical and contradictory.
Only if you don't have the entire story. Only if you don't know what's happening theologically. It's quite obvious that you don't.
And it is a rewards-based offer.
which you infer from a cursory reading of the texts. It isn't a rewards-based offer. If it were, it wouldn't be "grace." It'd be "payment."
The New Covenant isn’t unconditional (despite some people thinking the contrary). Individuals will be saved, providing they come to Christ in faith.
Wrong. Reconciliation has been achieved for us. Since that has happened, now the way is clear for us to come to God.
Oh don’t speak like a drama queen! Lol! These discussions are about views that are held philosophically? You need to separate academic scrutiny from the emotions that we all share. Do you suspend rational thinking and logic in your ordinary life, the way you do with your religious beliefs? No, of course you don’t. Away from this forum we’re all much of a muchness. In our everyday lives we love and are loved without questioning the cause or agonising over the nature of its meaning. Did Descartes really believe he might not exist? Did Bishop Berkeley really think there was no such thing as the material world?
I'm sorry. I thought we were dealing with verbatim texts here. What you wrote is what you said, so it must be what you mean. No exegesis necessary. Right?
God cannot love those who don’t recognise him!
God can and does love those who don't recognize God. They just can't love God back. Reciprocity, not relationship, is what is lost.
I also said that love is a human concept. If it isn’t then explain to me exactly what it is.
It's a relationship.