Monk Of Reason
༼ つ ◕_◕ ༽つ
pjpjpoijpojpojpojpo
You make an excelent piont that has dumbfounded me with your logic and grace. I concede the entire argument and now will convert to Christianity.
Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!
pjpjpoijpojpojpojpo
Yes God can choose to act. I do not see the contention or problem with that.
I apparently do not understand what you are contending. I will paraphrase Craig and would agree with what is said. There is no natural explanation for the universes coming into existence know or theoretically reliable. The only known theoretical concept capable or bring things into being is a disembodied mind that is omnipotent, omniscient, etc......
Now you can show I misunderstood Craig or that you are trying to show something else, but what I said (not being proof of anything) Has no logical invalidation. No known natural explanation for the universe exists. I am not intentionally waffling. I just do not see exactly what your contention is.
Logic requires a cause that no known natural process can supply. The only thing left is something beyond nature. Nothing has no causal potential. It is the absence of being, never a cause. It is true that maybe something else will be discovered that could explain this but even theoretically this is almost a logical absurdity. In fact not almost but it is a logical absurdity. The absence of anything can't create anything. You must either show the universe eternal or than nothing has causal potential. Being generous I agree it is not known we can go from something beyond nature to the God of the Bible, but what is certain is you can't go from nothing to nature without something beyond nature.
Then how is it possible to have multiple worlds (universes)? Or is one world said to theoretically contain multiples universe. I hate terminology.
What might be true of the arbitrary terminology associated with the word World does not suggest what is true of nature. God can be in the world and independent of nature if the word is used like that. The world that contains God might be self explanatory but the natural world alone is not self explanatory. I deny the capacity of any term to bind God anyway.
This is where the fallibility of our crude language causes paradoxes to be supposed where no exist. There is nothing illogical concerning a God who never created a material universe. This almost sounds like a tree in the forest argument with no one to hear. A paradox of language is not a paradox in reality many times. I find them interesting and completely unproductive. [/font]
You did not read my claim carefully. I never sais information can be copied without intelligence which is what Hume is saying. I said it can be created to begin with without intelligence. A good explanation or example is the movie contact. They were listening to space and said that the way they would distinguish intelligent signals from natural ones is would be the presence of information. Indeterminate natural processes are mostly chaotic, a few can generate patterns of less than equilibrium complexity, what they can never do is produce complex information. My boss is an information specialist. It gets far worse than my primitive example. You also get into decoders than must be tuned to the type of information given so you need two independent systems coordinated with each other in sophisticated ways. There is not one example of information arising from nature without mind being involved. I would love to expand on this alone but am short of time.
That was interesting but as usual appears to only be a problem of semantics that is then transcribed to reality for some reason.
Intelligence implies the ability understand. A roach and a human are not intellectual equals. A human and God are both cognitive but in infinitely contrasting capacities as to in no way be equals.
I have no idea why that would be fine for finite creatures but impossible for an infinite one.
To say God is intelligent, personal, or a moral agent is not to say his morals, intelligence, or ability to choose is identical to humans. Humans were made with similar aspect as God. We were not made with his capacity. To say both a ten inch line and an infinitely long theoretical line both have length does nothing to suggest he are equal in length. God is aware, we are aware. He is aware of everything and we are aware of an infinitesimally small subsection of a subsection of reality. There are no lesson from equality to be drawn from things that can't be any less equal.
There comes a point in most fields of study where the only
gain becomes to blur the simple and complicate the obvious. I find most of theoretical physics, cosmology, the deep end of rhetoric, and philosophy to only blur and obfuscate things. We have begun to literally think our selves into imbecility. The Bible indicates that this way:
Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,
- King James Bible "Authorized Version", Cambridge Edition
I am loathe to criticize people as smart as a Hawking or a Hume but many times the glaring stupidity of their claims is so obvious I wonder at their sanity. I can supply some of those instances if needed.
Newton's laws do not apply to creation. They apply to a created thing. Newton's laws apply to nature once you have nature and they assume only what nature does. As Lewis has said natural law may explain that A + B = C but it will never produce A,B, or C. Natural law is creatively impotent. Yes all the evidence we have suggests a finite universe.
Vilenkins verdict: All the evidence we have says that the universe had a beginning.
Vilenkins verdict: All the evidence we have says that the universe had a beginning. | Uncommon Descent
Yes what is known can and does indicate the presence of unknowns. If nature needs a cause which it does not contain it must come from something beyond nature and it's characteristics can be deduced from nature.
They are susceptible to personal experience and many times to shared experience. No they are not of a reproducible type by definition by vast swaths of what science claim is neither. No one has ever experienced or replicated a multiple universe, abiogenesis, or a dinosaur becoming a bird yet all are validated in volumes of text books. Truth is independent of perception, therefor perception is not the criteria for truth. If I say the sun exist and you say it does not one of us are wrong but both can't be right. As in every other form of study multiplicity of experience indicate greater probability of truth. It is possible billions are wrong but it is not likely they are. I did not make a moral epistemological claim, I make moral ontological claims. I claim that with God moral foundations exist, objective moral truths exist, even if no one knows what they are. Almost everyone believes certain actions are morally wrong. That can't be possible unless God exists. The fact virtually all people perceive an objective moral realm makes it's existence very likely but not proof.
Even if a set of hypothesis are equally possible they are not equally likely. The point is this, instead of a life time lets say that man has one day to arrive at or deny faith.
If only cosmological evidence was available to make that decision on then since virtually all evidence suggests a Bible consistent cosmos and since even the other possible theories have good reasons to think they are probably impossible faith should be adopted. Even if that logic is faulty what is certainly faulty is validating the least likely theories and contending with the one consistent with all the evidence. Everyone uses that logic for everything else. Why is it only violated with God permitting theories? All of us make decisions given the best evidence unless it is a non-theist with God.
We will probably never be able to say with certainty this side of the dirt. However we can make the case that the universe indicates finiteness and a cause it needs, but does not contain, with vastly better certainty than any other theory. You appear to be saying that in the absence of proof all theories are equally valid and that is not true nor is it how anyone runs all their non-theological parts of their lives. I may not know how fast a pitch was, but 100 mph is a much better theory that c^2.
It is the same principle as the discovery that certain small objects did not obey Newtonian physics. They acted in ways and were of a nature that was not described by natural law as we knew it. Turned out there was a whole new and huge aspect of reality with whole sets of laws we had no apprehension of. God is the exact same type of analogy except God comes with the inconvenient concepts of judgment, morality, and paints us in a none to flattering light. The principles are exactly the same, why is the willingness to concede them not?
That is not the premise it is the conclusion. Greenleaf uses the exact same methodology and testing as is employed in all legal testimonial evaluations and arrives at the conclusion it is reliable. I was not discussing the influence of the Church in history. I am not sure what I am supposed to do with that.
The standard of all historical claims is probability no the absence of doubt. It is very baffling to me why non-theists saddle faith with standards it does not have and do not require anything of science at all. In science if not demonstrably impossible and even at times when it is, the theory is valid but for faith claims (of all things) absolute certainty is demanded. Why?
There is always the possibility of error but it is only the indication of error that is relevant.
I nor he made the case that authenticity is proof. I and he claimed authenticity is a factor in building the case for probability of reliability. Your getting proof burdens mixed up with reliability and faith burdens.
Proof is not the issue. Reliability in testimony is. There is a huge disconnect here. There is no absolute proof for anything beyond that we think.
Even though most do not admit it every claim beyond that is based partially on faith and only has a probability of being reliable. As documents go the Bible is extremely reliable in every category by which ancient document reliability is determined. It was never claimed to be truth. It is not proof or worthlessness. It is a quality of evidence issue.
The willingness to sacrifice everything for the sake of a proposition based on experience is proof that sincerity of the claim exists and indicates accuracy of the claim. This is a truth so intuitive as to be virtually instinctual.
All of us know the qualitative difference between a claim for benefit and a claim that results in great sacrifices. All of us doubt love until it is practiced even in suffering. You can't deny the principle. You are again claiming lack of proof indicates lack of value. Which is irrational enough on it's own but when so inconsistently applied becomes an indication of preference not evidence.
Are you telling me that 2 people who claim to have been abducted by alien's has the same persuasive value as 2 billion? For some reason you seem to claim that reliable testimony automatically becomes unreliable if about the supernatural. [/font][/color]
You misquoted: Here is the statement.
The argument has no refutation. I can allow that the truth claim is a little optimistic but is not Greenleaf's nor an unjustifiable part of common language use. It also states this as a proposition not a statement of proven fact.
I am not sure I understand what Greenleaf was saying here. It appears he is saying that experiential truth can still be acceptable even if it contradicts norms but can't be sure. I could not find this statement at all. It seems to be similar to a doctors taking my word that my arm hurts even if he can find no evidence that it should be. I can't be sure because I can't find it, for context.
I have not been able to copy and search for any of the three statement you gave from Greenleaf. Where are you getting these things from? I searched "testimony of the evangelists) copying three sections from this quote and can't find it. Nor could I find it with a general web search.
That is a subjective standard that you can not demonstrate is untrue. If you do not think it true then maybe you are not unprejudiced. I will take the standard and estimation over the founder of Harvard law and a well experienced lawyer as to what convinces an unprejudiced mind before a random person in a forum. I was convinced in spite of a prejudiced mind so can only say I very strongly disagree with your interpretation here. [/font]
He is not arbitrarily batting away supposed deceit. He nor I nor anyone I have heard of has ever shown the slightest indication of complicity or contrivance. That was a large part of the point. In fact every indication in every category indicates the greatest possible sincerity. I would be happy to discuss this alone if you wish.
What evidence is he not accepting?
I saw no probability argument made above besides the probability of reliability for their testimony. The probability of us dying and our bodies decomposing places no bounds on the probability we could rise again with either a spiritual body or a new material body. The only evidence we have for resurrection is positive.
That is the point. A claims truth is independent of it's extraordinary nature. I will show both the logic and the double standards with a comparison. Even with very god evidence you deny Christ's resurrection because it is extraordinary. However in spite of all the evidence you consider valid, virtually impossible extraordinary things such as multiverses and eternal natural realities. What you should have said was that extraordinary claims require extra ordinary evidence to be persuasive but you would be no more cosnistant. There are billions who testify to having experienced a resurrected Christ and no one has ever claimed to experience eternity or multiverses.
I most certainly can. His paper had a specific purpose. I can very well indicate that what he presumed that is part of another proof is not invalid because this paper had no burden for that proof. The same way Hawking did not get into Newton's theory of gravity to make the very stupid claim that gravity proves that something can come from nothing. That statement is stupid on it's own not because he assumed gravity was true based on arguments he did not include.
He made statements for differing audiences. He made some to be more relevant to Christians, some to legal professional. and even some anticipating (apparently to no effect) the claim that he was giving evidence weight it's importance, not it's reliability, justified. It is an extremely frequent tactic to anticipate and overcome contentions. However you are contending with the contention to head off a contention. Not even Greenleaf could see all that coming out of a rational minded person.
I do not think there is a single thing here you could possibly know even if true.
No, and there is another huge inconsistency here. I am bound by the descriptions assigned to God and his thousands of promises recorded thousands of years ago. Science is not bound by anything. Even the impossible or virtually impossible is claimed to be valid science and layer upon layer upon layer of assumptions producing assumptions are derived from it. Christians do not have the luxury of being restricted by nothing.
Yes they do. Exactly what everyday facts are multiverses based on. There is not the slightest reason to even think the natural law we know so little about has anything to do with them. There is not the slightest evidence they exist, and there are endless reasons to think they can't exist. Yet they are valid and God not. Why?
What does our location have to do with this? Quantum physics was extrapolated before any known natural law could explain it and it was true. Why is it only a non-natural explanation that can't be reliably extrapolated. Why is God less probable than the next field of physics we discover? In fact much of theoretical science is based on no known reality and many times contrary to it. Hawking's has waxed on quite a bit about what occurs in black holes or multiverses. Based on what? No evidence is available and no known principles are known to apply. [/font][/color][/color][/color].
No, life coming only from life is consistent with every known observation ever performed. Why is what is consistent with every observation question begging but what is inconsistent with every observation perfectly valid and claimed as fact at times. Double standards do not come any more flagrant. Causality is demonstrated in every effect ever observed. God is not dependent on causality. It may be said the perception of him is based on it but not his existence. Nothing caused God. The last piece of "logic" above escapes me.
Supernatural experience is no less valid than natural experience. If truth can be truth can be gained by the natural there is no reason to suggest it can't be gained through the transcendent.
Greenleaf never claimed that because X occurred on earth it exists in other worlds. He concluded that if X occurred in this world and this world does not contain the explanation of X then it's explanation is beyond this world. His paper I referenced is only concerned with the reliability of the testimony for X. The impossibility of the natural world to produce X is a matter for history, science, and philosophy and so is a side issue for that paper.
?Actually that is fact with proof. people have been clinically dead for quite some time and have recovered. It used to be such a problem caskets came with signaling devices equipped. However that was not my argument anyway. A lack of evidence is only a problem if more evidence should exist. The only resurrection in the Bible is of Christ. The testimony for it meets all criteria for reliability. What additional evidence should you have.
Many things in the natural world are independent of it. Numbers, many constants, abstract concepts have been shown to be independent of nature. Their existence in nature is not proof or even evidence that they are naturally derived.
There is not the slightest reason to believe cause and effect are only natural laws.
I agree he included his beliefs. I also claim his beliefs were not what he used as his core argumentation. The man as much as any in history and countless that claim faith were thoroughly trained in separating preference from evidence. Your confusing inclusion with foundation or method.
Well thats great that you say that and all but I need the evidence that lead you to this sort of conclusion.
In other words, its a house with no foundation. No surprise there.Please review the post you quoted.....
Faith is not formed of evidence.
It is held by reason.
Please review the post you quoted.....
Faith is not formed of evidence.
It is held by reason.
If 'God' is 'thought' it proves the existence of 'God'
Well...you have to provide a situation in which "reason" supports Faith. Faith is typically devoid of reason or at least in the methaphysical "blind faith" sense.
If my faith is that 'God' is 'thought'...then its supported and proven. 'Reason' is a synomyn for 'thought' ironically...and more coincidental...'conscience' translates to: 'with science'. Its not a blind-faith...its starring you right in the face.
That simply changes the definition of god. That doesn't produce an argument for religion. If I call Communism Democracy it doesn't make it any more or less appealing.
Not really...the definition of 'God' is: YHWH. It literally means: 'to be' ...the 'I am, That I am'. It doesnt change it at all...infact it compliments it.
In that the "christian" "jewish" "Islamic" religions are based off of it then yes. Yes it does change it.
That means you remove the commandments. The idea that god is a being or anything supernatural. It removes anything beyond the physical and more or less represents it in the same way many Atheists view the world.
So...i want to make sure we are clear...are you stating that implying 'God' is merely 'thought' ...that it removes all spiritual aspects...?? And it represents the view of 'God' more or less the same way Atheists view the world?