Whether it comes to science or religion, do you consider a lack of objective evidence to be objective evidence of absence?
Please explain your reasoning.
It certainly can be. Depends on context.
I'll give 2 examples of both ways to imo illustrate the difference nicely.
Let's take the example of evolution and paleontology.
Fossilization is known to be a very rare process. We aren't guaranteed to have ANY fossils at all.
So a transitional fossil like Tiktaalik for example, is evidence for the transition of sea to land life in animals.
Now let's say we never found this fossil. That would not be evidence of absence of the transition of sea to land. Because we aren't guaranteed these fossils. There's nothing that makes it such that these fossils MUST exist and be found.
Now let's contrast that with say a biblical global flood that kills 99.99% of all members of all species, bar a handful of breeding pairs of each species.
This idea makes predictions: there should be a geological layer showing evidence of this flood AND there should be an extremely severe genetic bottleneck in the genomes of ALL these species, dating the same period of that flood layer in the geological column.
As it turns out, neither exists... not the bottlenecks and not the layer.
THAT absence of evidence, most definately is evidence of absence of this flooding event as described. It did not occur.
The evidence of the universal genetic bottlenecks MUST exist. But it does not.
So in summary: if according the idea / hypothesis in question, the evidence MUST exist, then absence thereof is evidence of absence.
If certain evidence
could exist, but doesn't HAVE TO exist, then absence thereof is not evidence of absence.