Hello everybody,
In light of the latest Supreme Court decision where the detainees at Gitmo have a right to a hearing wouldn't Bin Laden be innocent until proven guilty?
I mean, say we capture Bin Laden, isn't he given this right to a hearing? And if it is to be a fair hearing wouldn't he have to be innocent until proven guilty?
If the crimes you're talking about are those that occurred in the US (I have to specify, since it seems to me like he's engaged in crimes all over the world), then why wouldn't he be subject to all the normal protections of the law?
Assuming you're talking about 9/11...
If a foreign citizen shoots and kills an American citizen in New York City, he's tried with murder in the normal way. If that foreign citizen flees to some other country, he's extradited to the US and then tried in the normal way. If a foreign citizen in some other country pays someone in New York City to shoot an American citizen, that foreign citizen is extradited to the US and then tried in the normal way.
The "normal way" includes the presumption of innocence until guilt is proven beyond a reasonable doubt. Killing 3,000 people is definitely of greater magnitude than killing a single person, but it's still a difference of degree, not of some fundamental nature of the crime.
It certainly seems to me that Osama bin Laden is a mass murderer; he should be tried as such. Do you really think that meeting the normal standard of proof would be difficult with Osama bin Laden?
And doesn't this undercut many opponents of the Iraq war that say that we should be going after (and indeed trying to kill) Bin Laden instead of going to Iraq?
Sure, but it doesn't undercut justice, which is (or should be) the real aim.
However, I think there's a fundamental difference between two similar-looking approaches:
- going after bin Laden with the hope of bringing him to justice, but recognizing that it may be impossible or cost an inordinate number of American or allied lives to capture him alive, and
- going after bin Laden with the intent of killing him vigilante-style for its own sake.
However, the USA is at war, and bin Laden is an undisputed enemy soldier. In war, we don't put enemy soldiers on trial before we kill them.
In war, we also don't put enemy soldiers on trial for acts of war.
Declaring "we're at war" may lower the bar of acceptability for your own conduct, but it also lowers the bar of acceptability for the conduct of your enemy.
It is just a bit insane that we're starting to treat foreign enemies of the state as innocent citizens.
In every other situation, foreign citizens who commit crimes on US soil are handled by the normal justice system with the normal protections of due process. Why should this case be any different?