Yes. Since what other thing would perfection mean, if not being corruption-free?
So you mean you do think Adam and Eve are perfect but they're not immune to sin.
Please elaborate what do you mean by "corruption-free".
The claim he placed was not logical,
Please cite which claim you're refering to which you say is illogical.
unless he also intended to put it within quotes: Man was made "perfect".
I don't understand how your statement connect to your previous statement and what message you wish to convey.
Being perfect also includes the ability to sin. "Immune to free will" means lacking that ability. So we have a paradox in Christianity here, which is:
-one is not perfect if deprived the ability to freely sin >this means> free will is a part of perfection
-if one is so perfect that it is not possible ever to abuse free will, then one is not able to sin >this means> not possible for Adam to fall. Story says that Adam had free will and he was able to abuse it. So he was not perfect, instead he was just like us.
I previously asked you: You mean Adam and Eve are perfect but they're not immune to sin?
You answered: Yes.
So you mean you think Adam and Eve are perfect, but now you say Adam was not perfect.
Do you think Adam is perfect or not?
Please elaborate your complete definition for your use of the term 'perfect'.
Except in one thing, he was lacking the knowledge of sin, the concept of it, which now we have. Having knowledge is required to abuse free will. Otherwise, you are not abusing anything, you are innocent.
You previously say "Story says that Adam had free will and he was able to abuse it". You then say Adam was lacking the knowledge of sin and also say that having knowledge is required to abuse free will.
Do you think Adam need to have knowledge in order to abuse free will or not?
There are only actions and choices; only knowledge can put labels "good", "neutral" and "bad" on these actions and choices. Adam had no knowledge before he tasted the fruit from the Tree of knowledge.
You previously say "Story says that Adam had free will and he was able to abuse it". Now you say he never abused his free will.
I don't understand the contradiction between your statements.
So, he never abused his free will, nor God had any reason to punish him. Unless the punishment itself was the education: "Now you know it is a no-no."
I can understand that is what you believe.
What is perfection, being or not being able to sin? Being able to sin means free will present in full. Not being able to sin means to be situated at the absolute.
You have explain "Situated at the absolute platform means to serve God".
So you mean if a person serve God then that person will not be able to sin.
You also previously say that "Being perfect also includes the ability to sin".
Since serving God must make a person not being able to sin, so you mean if a people serve God then that people is not perfect.
I cannot understand what message you wish to convey.
Seems like if sin is a relative category. It may not be the act itself that is sinful, but the attitude. Killing is a sin, but killing a terrorist to save a baby is a lesser evil. Sin is like beauty - it is in the eye of a beholder, depending on the paradigm.
I can comprehend that.
Only God is the Absolute,
I can understand that is what you believe.
Only God is the Absolute, so being situated at this absolute platform is perfection of not being able to abuse free will.
You previously say "if one is so perfect that it is not possible ever to abuse free will, then one is not able to sin >this means> not possible for Adam to fall. Story says that Adam had free will and he was able to abuse it. So he was not perfect."
You say Adam was not perfect because he was able to abuse his free will.
Now you say not being able to abuse free will is a perfection.
I don't understand the contradiction between your statements and what message you wish to convey with your statements.
And naturally, it is dangerous if one thinks serving God is doing just anything in God's name.
I can understand that is what you believe but i don't know what message you wish to convey.
"Thy will be done" while being *genuinely* connected with God is perfection.
Please explain what do you mean by "Thy will be done". Who's will? What and which will? The will done by who?
So if we have no knowledge how to act properly, then we can escape into "Thy will be done".
Please explain why do you think so.
But this is what *we* can tell, after the Adam's tragic experience.
I have no idea what *I* can tell when you say "what *we* can tell". I also don't know what message you wish to convey.
Before he tasted the fruit, he could not know that it was not good to disobey God.
I can comprehend that.