But they're typically opponents of socialism & communism.
Do you believe the USSR should be characterized as either?
Using Marxist terminology, there are five economic systems; Primitive Communism, Ancient/Slave, Feudal, Capitalist and Communist. The economic systems are "modes of production", by which it means the
most common pattern of ownership within the system.
Primitive Communism refers to hunter-gatherer societies, in which the level of technological development is very primitve and therefore people have very simple tools which are easy to make. the ease with which these tools are made, means they can be treated as common property. the simplicity of tools means there is ittle or no division of labour, and so society is not divided into social classes.
The Ancient or Slave mode of production refers to those which are built primarily on slavery; Ancient, Egypt, Rome and Greece would be examples. The reason behind the development of this new mode of production was the relationship between technology and economic organisation; as the technology became more sophisticaed, so it became harder to reproduce. more time and effort was invoved in producing tools. societies evolved from hunter-gatherer societies to more settled patterns of agriculture, slowly you start to develop more fixed practices of land ownership as "private" property. the use of slaves was primarily a result of conquering other populations and then "owning" them so they worked the land, creating a class society.
The Feudal mode of production was based on Serfdom, as labour/peasants being legally tied to the land, which the land is owned by the lord. There was a minor controversy amongst Marxists as to how appropriate the "feudal" mode of production was an adequate description of China, India and Russia because the latter were much more centralised than their european counterparts and whether there was another "asiatic" mode of production, but this idea fell out of favour very quickly.
Capitalism, is one where physical capital, such as machines and factories as sophisticated tools and instruments for production, are owned by a "capitalist". This can start off with one person using their tools to create products which they sell to others. Slowly, as the tools become more complex the "owner" hires other people to use them in return for a wage. This is how you end up with one person "owning" the means of production, whilst others work it.
All this trade however leads further and further away from a society where a person who uses the tools actually owns them. The wage-workers or "proletariat"/working class are the ones who do the work. production which is built on workers co-operating with one another and by exchanging goods and services eventually form the basis for a new society characterised by common ownership, communism.
Now, the tricky bit is that these are "modes" of production, so it is dependent on which pattern of ownership is most common, and therefore which class is infact in control. So for example, in late 19th century Germany there were Feudal landowners, and Capitalists who owned the capital- but it was capitalist because the capitalists were in control. In the United States before the civil war, there were Slave Owners, but it was still Capitalist because the capitalists were in charge.
Defining "socialism" has proven a bit tricky. If you were to take the example of China as it is today, the "workers and peasants" are (nominally) in control of the state through the rule of the Communist Party. China is therefore part of the
communist mode of production. This is because the "vanguard" of the workers and peasants is in control, even though the market economy is very dominant since the changes. This would also include Cuba, Vietnam, Laos and (most alarmingly) North Korea.
Socialism, as understood by Lenin is the "lower" phase of communist society- it therefore continues to have many aspects of capitalism, such as a market economy. However
he would have said that the United Kingdom in 1945 and Sweden more recently were "capitalist"
because the communist party, as the vanguard of the worker and peasant classes was not in control. A rule of thumb is that if a government is run by a communist party as a one-party state, it is "communist". So, the USSR was communist, even if it was in the lower stage of socialism.
If you have a government with
competitive elections, in which political parties are effectively corporations "selling"their product to the people, and treating the political arena as a "marketplace of ideas", where people have the "freedom to exchange" ideas as commodities, you have a
capitalist state. What distinguishes communism is the
monopolistic character of the government as ruled by a single party (or coalition as was the case in eastern europe).
Obviously the terms are very elastic, but this is generally the way they have been used amongst Marxists since Lenin. There was somewhat more ambiguity before then and this is where the multiple usage of the word "socialism" comes from. A certian group of Marxists suggested that universal sufferage and "democracy" meant that the state was class neutral and therefore there was no need to overthrow it- capitalism could therefore peacefully and gradully evolve into socialism through reforms. Lenin argued against this view, institing that the state was not neutral and had a "class" character and that "bourgeois democracy" of multiple parties had to be overthrown in a revolution, to be replaced with a one-party "dictatorship of the proletariat", with the communist party as the "vanguard" of the proletariat.
The usage of "socialism" in the US to refers to
all forms of government ownership, in contrast to private ownership, based on the assumption that government is coercive and private property is the basis for personal liberty through self-ownership. It is a peculiar one which blurs the distinction between the slave systems of ancient Greece and Rome, Medieval Fedualism, Capitalist systems with large public sectors (including the Nazis, Fascists and "democratic socialists") and the "socialist"/Communist variety. This is why, when talking about Nazis,Communists and Democratic Socialists, Hayek called it the "Road to Serfdom" because it completely blurs any and all forms of property that are publicly owned or have some relation to the government.
I'm trying to keep it as short as possible, but I hope I've covered everything.
[edit: so yes, the USSR was socialist/communist using
Lenin's definition
.]