Your ad hominems aside, the translators of that particular section of the KJV had enough language experience to tranlate better than you or me. One of the translators is reported to be fluent in 15 languages.
That's funny! Just so you know, you're the one using an
ad hominem here.
As to why I won't trust your ability is that you fail to understand that whether you use a colon, semi-colon or a comma changes the meaning of the English.
But I do understand that. I also understand that the colon didn't change the meaning when this colon was written in English. I also understand that the Bible wasn't originally composed in English. I also understand that no translation can render the original perfectly.
You may or may not be right on this point. The understanding is unclear for the time period. It is clear that the 1611 KJV is not written in common English and the rules were being established at the time. The invention of the printing press called for a standardization of written English and this was in the process of happening. Contrary to this is that Scripture was the most common text that was read aloud and the pause rules seemed to apply. It is also clear that the KJV style became the more accepted norm for formal grammer due to it's usage of the best available grammer of it's time and widespread usage by the populace subsequently.
Now, what I do realize is that the 1611 version is, in practicality, no longer used ergo the rules of the time are no longer applicable. Various reprints and editing brought the 1611 translation up to date for spelling and punctuation by the mid to late 1700's when the rules of grammer were established.
If this particular colon were the product of such modernizations of spelling and punctuation, then you'd have a good argument here. Unfortunately for you, though, this particular colon was part of the original translation, as you can verify by looking at facsimiles of the 1611 KJV. Such facsimiles are readily available online.
Modernizations of spelling and punctuation are not new translations. The modernizers don't go back to the original languages and try to make the spelling and punctuation fit the meaning of the original text better. They simply look for things that appear to be errors in spelling or pronunciation at the moment. This particular colon wouldn't seem to be in error, and so it wouldn't be caught by someone who is essentially proofreading. So this colon isn't there because it means what a colon means now it's there because it meant what a colon meant in 1611. The new meaning that a reader might try to impose on it now is what's in error.
Furthermore the New King James translation only saw fit to replace that particular colon with a semi-colon which only slightly changed the meaning. What that infers then is that what comes before the semi-colon is a complete thought with what comes after it a further clarification of that comes previous. The only change, then, is that when there was a colon the previous was incomplete in meaning without the following.
And that totally up-ends your whole colon-based argument. That colon and the incompleteness it supposedly signified in what preceded it was your sole textual basis in this chapter for saying that being made in God's image means something other than being made in God's image. If, when a new translation was made after the colon acquired a syntactic meaning, the translators changed it from a colon to a semicolon, then they felt that incompleteness was a modern misunderstanding rather than a good representation of the original text. They felt the clause before the colon was in fact complete in the original. So your argument is gone.
Heck, I believe the Never Improved Version (NIV) uses the same punctuation.
Well, like you say, Never Improved! (Nice backronym, too!)
You aren't going to contend that the revisors of both the New KJV and the NIV were not privy to the "new" rules of English are you?
I'm not sure why you have the scare quotes on new there. At any rate, I'm not going to contend anything about what the NIV folks were smoking. But as you pointed out, the NKJV folks, understanding the new rules of punctuation, changed that colon into a semicolon, which renders your argument dead.
Now, getting back on topic of the OP. Not only does the correct reading of the verses offered show that God is not male and female the reading of Scripture in it's entirety clearly shows this not to be the case. What You will find is that the usage of the plural in the Hebrew in this instance in Genesis refers to a singular plurality, much in the way as we might, in English, say, "a bunch of grapes." This is a singular bunch with multiple grapes. The inference is that there is one God with a plurality of parts, ie. the Trinity. This can be futher verified by the usage elswhere in Scripture of the plural "Elohim" when clearly it is speaking of a singular. This is also mirrored by the usage of the plural "Cherubim" when it is clear that a singular cherub is meant.
That's hardly established fact. Especially in light of Genesis 1 taken on its own.
As I said before, "There may be good reason not to take this passage at face value, perhaps based on other portions of the Bible or perhaps based on extra-biblical theological reasoning. But if we're limiting ourselves to Genesis 1, a literal interpretation forces a belief in multiple gods (at least two) who at least look like men
and women."
And by the way, I'm thinking that Ovid was probably the last thing I've translated, not that it's relevant. I guess my point is that were I to make such incorrect assuptions about others I would feel childish.
Then you must know, if you did any serious amount of work with Ovid, that no translation can render the original perfectly.
Your confusing chivalry with sexism.
Well, you were the one who first called my chivalry sexist. I take it you really can distinguish between them, then. In that case, I'll accept your retraction!