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Is Having Sex While Drunk Rape?

When it comes to society, it is full of double standards. However, few of them are as perplexing to me as the classification of having sex while drunk as being "rape". Let's take a look at the Criminal Code of Canada definition of "consent" specifically because it mentions the case of intoxication:

Criminal Code of Canada said:
273.1 (1) Subject to subsection (2) and subsection 265(3), "consent" means, for the purposes of sections 271, 272 and 273, the voluntary agreement of the complainant to engage in the sexual activity in question.

Where no consent obtained
(2) No consent is obtained, for the purposes of sections 271, 272 and 273, where
(a) the agreement is expressed by the words or conduct of a person other than the complainant;
(b) the complainant is incapable of consenting to the activity;
(c) the accused induces the complainant to engage in the activity by abusing a position of trust, power or authority;
(d) the complainant expresses, by words or conduct, a lack of agreement to engage in the activity; or
(e) the complainant, having consented to engage in sexual activity, expresses, by words or conduct, a lack of agreement to continue to engage in the activity.

Subsection (2) not limiting
(3) Nothing in subsection (2) shall be construed as limiting the circumstances in which no consent is obtained.
1992, c. 38, s. 1.

Where belief in consent not a defence
273.2 It is not a defence to a charge under section 271, 272 or 273 that the accused believed that the complainant consented to the activity that forms the subject-matter of the charge, where
(a) the accused's belief arose from the accused's
(i) self-induced intoxication, or
(ii) recklessness or wilful blindness; or
(b) the accused did not take reasonable steps, in the circumstances known to the accused at the time, to ascertain that the complainant was consenting.

In other words, if someone is incapable of giving consent (such as in the case of being voluntarily intoxicated), no consent is given and any sexual activity that person engages in, willingly or not, is rape. So if a man is sober and a drunk woman comes up to him (and she is drunk of her own accord) and wants to have sex, he is raping her if he engages in it. But even more tellingly, Section 273.2 is even more interesting because it says that if a person is drunk and thinks they had consent because they too were also drunk, it is not a valid defence and that person is STILL guilty of rape.

So in one case, the victim is deemed not culpable because they were voluntarily intoxicated and therefore could not make a sound enough judgement to give consent. Fine. But even if the accused is also drunk and engages in sex, they are still responsible for their actions. So if two drunk people have sex together, are both guilty of raping each other? Because this is how the law reads.

In every other facet of life, voluntary drunkenness is not a defence for anything. If I get drunk and max out my credit card, I'm responsible for the consequences. If I get drunk and sign a bad business deal, I'm responsible for the consequences. If I go to the bar and get hammered and drive home, I'm responsible for the consequences. Being drunk in all of the above situations still deems you legally responsible for the outcome of the decisions you have consented to. The only case where this is not true is in the case of rape where if you are drunk of your own accord and you consent to a particular activity and willingly engage in it, you have still been raped by legal definition. Worse still, different people have different abilities to make decisions while intoxicated and not everyone is intoxicated to the same level. We also don't know the level of intoxication at the time of the alleged incident, so we don't even know how drunk that person was or if they even were drunk by legal definition, nor does this even seem to be a factor.

It goes deeper to a culture where we do not promote personal responsibility. If we are poor, bullied, make bad decisions, are unhealthy, or whatever, it is all someone else's fault; usually a faceless "society" or a "system". Passing the blame onto someone or something else absolves you of all personal responsibility and means that you are not required to do anything to improve your situation (whether you are culpable for it or not). Rape is a terrible crime and rapists are terrible people. They should be locked in jail. But rapists are not people who go to the bar, have a pitcher of beer, and then sleep with someone who has consented after getting themselves drunk. If someone wants to voluntarily put themselves in a state where they supposedly cannot make rational, level-headed decisions, and are in a setting where bad things might happen to them, then anything that happens thereafter is their own fault whether they like it or regret it or not. There is no reason for this double standard and inconsistency in law.
 
If you don't want sex while drunk, then don't get drunk, simple.

Basically a TL;DR of my OP :p. Exactly. You choose to get intoxicated. You consent to sex while intoxicated. Therefore, you're responsible for it. Someone drugging you against your will is a different matter. But if you voluntarily impair yourself to the point where you are unable to make rational decisions, it's your own fault.
 

psychoslice

Veteran Member
Basically a TL;DR of my OP :p. Exactly. You choose to get intoxicated. You consent to sex while intoxicated. Therefore, you're responsible for it. Someone drugging you against your will is a different matter. But if you voluntarily impair yourself to the point where you are unable to make rational decisions, it's your own fault.
Yes someone drugging you is a different story, as a young gay guy when at a party I was drugged, and also raped by three men, but if I wasn't drunk it wouldn't have happened, for I would have been more aware, but who knows ?.
 

Deathbydefault

Apistevist Asexual Atheist
Taking advantage of someone while they are drunk, or feeding them more drinks knowing the outcome you would prefer is likely, should be considered rape.
If one party gets wasted on their own accord and the other just follows along, it's not rape.
If both parties are wasted and engage in sexual activity, it's not rape.
If one party sees that the other is drunk and goes to force or influence them into sexual activities, it's rape.

Pretty easy to classify each scenario as they appear, but law says some different things.
Law sees it differently, but that doesn't necessarily mean law is correct or that it can't be improved.
Lucky me, I'll never have to deal with any of these situations.
 

HonestJoe

Well-Known Member
You’re making the all too common error of assuming “being drunk” automatically invalidates consent but that is not the case. The legislation you quote makes no reference to alcohol, only that a person needs to be “capable of consent”. Lots of things could impact an individual’s ability to be capable of consent, long or short term, and it’s often difficult to define a point at which they lose that competence. In some cases, such as age, we draw artificial lines but in others we don’t (or can’t). As with the countless other non-specific assessments involved in legal decisions, that has to be something judges and juries have to determine as best they can. In the case of a rape accusation involving an alleged victim who was drunk, they have to assess all the evidence and decide whether they think the alleged victim was capable of consent or not with the required level of confidence for the legal process (“balance of probabilities”, “beyond reasonable doubt” etc.). I don’t think anyone claims this is easy.

Some of the other things you list will actually have different legal protections. Contract law will generally have similar requirements around “capability” as the rape laws and if you can demonstrate that you were so drunk as to be incapable of making a rational decision when you signed, especially where the other parties were aware of this, a contract could be invalidated. Similarly on the credit card one, I suspect laws, regulations and policies will provide some protection to customers who make purchases when noticeably intoxicated, certainly for any large or unconventional ones. Again, “being drunk” isn’t the line, demonstrating a lack of capability would be. Drunk (or drugged) driving will typically involve someone driving along – the level of awareness that requires implies the individual will be aware enough to know they shouldn’t be driving. There are legitimate issues in some aspects (such as being drunk in a parked car) but they should be addressed independently of the rape question – there’s no justification for playing them off against each other.

There are plenty of flaws, imperfections and inconsistencies in this area but nothing suggested by this line of thinking makes them any better. Your conclusion could lead us to the terrifying situation where anyone who willingly got drunk (or otherwise intoxicated) could have literally anything done to them by convincing enough people and those people would be declared entirely innocent. Just because someone is responsible for their bad decisions doesn’t mean someone who takes undue advantage of those bad decisions isn’t responsible for that. Only where both people involved are so incapacitated as to be incapable of consent would this be different but for all the rhetoric spouted in this area, the vast majority of cases that get any way in formal legal process don’t come close to this situation.
 

Grumpuss

Active Member
If you don't want sex while drunk, then don't get drunk, simple.
Alcohol impairs judgment. I don't think anyone's disputing that. But how society treats a man and the decisions he makes while influenced by drunkeness are quite different than how a woman and her decisions are treated.
 

Terrywoodenpic

Oldest Heretic
Alcohol impairs judgment. I don't think anyone's disputing that. But how society treats a man and the decisions he makes while influenced by drunkeness are quite different than how a woman and her decisions are treated.

Societies opinion of male and female drunkenness, rarely matches the law on the subject.
Women have considerable protection in the UK, especially when it comes to unwanted sexual advances and activity., drunk or not.
A man who is under the influence of alcohol loses sexual ability the more he consumes. It is unlikely that a man who has forceful sex is anything like drunk, and knows exactly what he is doing.
 

SSDSSDSSD3

The Great Sea Under!
It's not rape according to my political views; however, drugging someone against their view, (some people don't know what's in their drinks), should be illegal. But otherwise the actual sex shouldn't be considered illegal, (unless they actually refuse to have sex with that person or the child is underage).
 

McBell

Unbound
But rapists are not people who go to the bar, have a pitcher of beer, and then sleep with someone who has consented after getting themselves drunk.
So what do YOU call those people who do just that?

If someone wants to voluntarily put themselves in a state where they supposedly cannot make rational, level-headed decisions, and are in a setting where bad things might happen to them, then anything that happens thereafter is their own fault whether they like it or regret it or not.
Let me guess, you are one who blames the victim because they dressed "provocatively", right?

There is no reason for this double standard and inconsistency in law.
I fail to understand the whining.
If you have sex with someone who is drunk and they later say they did not consent, then by law you raped them.
Simple as that.
 

Kilgore Trout

Misanthropic Humanist
Why is this such an issue? What kind of person would have sex with someone who is in no condition to consent?

Does being drunk necessarily mean you are in no condition to consent? What exact definition of "drunk" are they using? Is whatever criteria they're using accurate and reasonable in defining someone as being in no condition to consent?

As a corollary, is there a level of mental deficiency that would also indicate that someone is in no condition to give consent? What level would that be? Does that mean that having sex with anyone below that level would automatically be rape? What if two people with Down's Syndrome engage in sex - is the female being raped - both?
 

McBell

Unbound
Does being drunk necessarily mean you are in no condition to consent? What exact definition of "drunk" are they using? Is whatever criteria they're using accurate and reasonable in defining someone as being in no condition to consent?

As a corollary, is there a level of mental deficiency that would also indicate that someone is in no condition to give consent? What level would that be? Does that mean that having sex with anyone below that level would automatically be rape? What if two people with Down's Syndrome engage in sex - is the female being raped - both?
Seems to me the blanket law in the OP is for a starting position.
Meaning that if someone is drunk and claimed they were raped, they were raped.

Does it mean all drunk sex is rape?
I rather doubt it.

I am not familiar with a situation that involved Downs Syndrome, however, I am familiar with a few situations that involved Alzheimers.
The case that involved husband and wife, when the wife remembered he was her husband it was consensual.
When the wife did not remember it was her husband, it was rape.
That was a bit of a legal mess given the daughter of the wife (step daughter of the husband) kept pushing for rape, not the wife.

Long story short, the daughter was charged with filing a false report for each count she claimed rape.
 
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