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if you support cigarettes, you are anti-transgender, because cigarettes and trans therapy don't go together.
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Is Homosexuality a illness? And how to heal?
- Thread starter Servant_of_the_One1
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if you support cigarettes, you are anti-transgender, because cigarettes and trans therapy don't go together.
chevron1
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that's why the chinese invented transcranial electric stimulation. it cures schizophrenia.
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Okay I must ask, sir. Are you drunk? That is what your posts indicate to me! Either that or you adore dry humor.if you support cigarettes, you are anti-transgender, because cigarettes and trans therapy don't go together.
Intersex is defined as an intermediate between male and female. It could be argued that this may include some transitioning transgender people as well as hermaphrodites. But the term is a bit broad and is mostly a term for inclusiveness, rather than academic language.
that's why the chinese invented transcranial electric stimulation. it cures schizophrenia.
See, this is the kind of post that really irritates me. There is NO cure for schizophrenia. NONE. And speading this kind of outright claptrap is tantamount to lying, something I loathe. I agree with several other posters, you need serious mental help. Get some.
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That's because schizophrenia (like all psychiatric diagnoses) are defined into existence. If you are ever diagnosed as schizophrenic, and if you subsequently never exhibit any symptoms of schizophrenia, you are by definition in remission. After all, you were only schizophrenic by definition to begin with. You can't cure a disorder that is a construct without any known etiology and that can't be cured by definition, regardless of whether or not the symptoms that were the reason for the initial diagnosis never reappear.
About 30 years ago, there was no cure for homosexuality, which was defined as a mental disease based upon no evidence and removed from the DSM based on no evidence. Now, while I think the fact that psychiatrists actually had to determine that homosexuality wasn't a disease is a permanent stain on the history of mental health treatment, and that the fact that psychiatry ever thought homosexuality a disease to begin with is even more tragic, the fact is that the biomedical model of mental health that forms the basis for your claim about schizophrenia is the same that allows psychiatrists to determine homosexuality is a disease for which there is "NO cure...NONE". I'm not equating homosexuality with schizophrenia apart from the fact that both were listed in the DSM and both defined by psychiatry as illnesses. Schizophrenia is a serious condition. But to say there is no cure is simply balderdash.
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Caitlyn Jenner (formerly the beautiful Bruce Jenner) now says he wants to date men because he "appreciates the male form". Formerly, he claimed his orientation did not change and that he would be a lover of women only. trans-gay therapy can work but at great cost.
Bruce Jenner: I'm Not Gay
Bruce Jenner: I'm Not Gay
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That is your proof?? Not a single double blind study, not a reference in sight, never mind peer reviewed. And what is worse, its a 'do it yourself'. This kind of junk science and it is junk science, is dangerous. As I said, you need help. Get some.
Start by showing a single study that demonstrates schizophrenia exists apart from a series of (somewhat arbitrary) symptoms defined without evidence to be a "disease" that could possibly be cured other than by the same method it was constructed: by definition.
This is nonsense bunk.
There may be one ... in the future. However, the genetic basis for the disease has been rather well documented by Princeton U and UC Irvine, both prestigious schools. As early as the 1990's, genes were isolated that were directly related to the prevalence in identical twins. http://www.schizophrenia.com/research/hereditygen.htm.
There is no doubt that antipsychotics successfully treat the disease. As I said, maybe in the future a cure will be found but at present, there is none. Unless you can prove me wrong?
Intersex isn't transgender. My fiancée is considered intersex due to a genetic condition she has, but she is still a she, physically and mentally.
chevron1
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Try quoting from actual scientific studies/journals and not some random website like "www.taocurrents.org". You have no real science to back up your claims anywhere in this thread.
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that's one opinion, but the trans christians say that intersex people are transgender. different strokes for different folks.
That possibly, but had a very small sample size, treats a single symptom of Schizophrenia, not cures it.
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but i posted a link to a clinical study about schizophrenia and tdcs.
It's not about what one person says vs what another person says. It's what the bulk of the medical and scientific community agree upon through tested practices viable genetics vs a few fringe groups making unverifiable claims. I know whose side I am on.
That was the assumption by the psychiatrists who defined such diseases into existence in order to protect their field and status. ~40 years later, all evidence points to the contrary.
Not only wrong, but impossible. You can't have a genetic basis for a disease that is defined by symptoms. I can construct a series of symptoms that are better supported by such correlations and are far more bogus with ease. Having assumed that the symptoms which are psychiatric constructs correspond to a disease, the only possible way to document any genetic basis is to identify correlations between those regarded as fitting the symptoms and genetics. Only even this failed, as the
1) The would-be underlying genetics don't hold for all those diagnosed with schizophrenia and do hold for those who never present symptoms of schizophrenia
and
2) atypical antipsychotics.
Turns out that said genes (as well as dopamine and other would-be underlying etiological markers of schizophrenia) neither apply to all schizophrenics nor can identify schizophrenics as those with these markers don't necessarily present symptoms of schizophrenia.
Completely wrong.
1) Today, most antipsychotics are recognized as being nothing more than general treatments that mask or control symptoms, which is why most antipsychotics are prescribed to those with mood disorders like bipolar, not schizophrenics.
2) Atypical antipsychotics are "atypical" because they aren't supposed to work. They do. Why? Because the best theories as to the etiology of schizophrenia lack even this little evidence.
You can't cure what is defined to be a disease without any pathology and that is defined to be incurable such that even if the only basis for diagnosis (symptoms) never present themselves again, you aren't "cured" because you are by definition in remission.
[QUOTE[Unless you can prove me wrong?[/QUOTE]
Can you demonstrate that schizophrenia exists apart from a particular classification of symptoms that were arbitrarily changed in order to improve inter-rater reliability?