Something similiar to your Aztec evidence: Documents such as the Bible is composed of 66 books, composed by numerous authors that spanned 3 continents (Europe, Asia and Africa). Where as the Illiad and the Odyssey were written by Homer in Greece.
And despite the vastly different timeperiods and cultures, all those 66 books fit seamlessly into one another, with no hint of different ideas, histories, cosmologies, or metaphysics due to differing timeperiods and cultures.... :no:
The facts you've given are not incompatible with a cultural evolution explanation of the Bible.
Mister T said:
Or how about the fact the Rome dumped their Greek inspired gods in favor of the god of Abraham? These could be used as evidence against your argument.
My argument (er, one of them) is essentially that god-beliefs come from culture. Cultures change. So this example wouldn't be evidence against my argument....but I will still concede that it does cry out for explanation. I would offer the following for your consideration:
- The Christianization of Rome was a process that took hundreds of years
- Paganism was systematically outlawed
- Christianity favored aggressivesly converting / conquering non-Christians
- Paganism wasn't dumped but adapted and incorporated into Christianity
Mister T said:
Then you would know that faith has little to do with what you feel.
I know that not everyone's faith is the same. For some, faith has a lot to do with an experience in which the person felt the presence of God or a lost loved one. The neuroscience experiment I cited demonstrates that there need not necessarily be a God for these experiences to arise. This does not prove my argument, but it is one piece of the puzzle, i.m.o.
Mister T said:
Maybe what people see as "multiple entities" is really different expressions?
I can accept that as possible, but I would invite you to consider *all* the possibilties. Maybe the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are really just different expressions of Zeus, Hera, and Hercules. Or, maybe they are all just different expressions of a single, universal human psychological need. And so on.
Mister T said:
But I think we're losing focus here. They argument is whether or not one is more credible than the other....not whether or not one is real and one isn't.
I was simply trying to show that the rebuttal you offered:
I could say the fact that Atheism didn't pop up until the 6th century B.C. and that virtually all cultures had an instictive belief in a higer power is proof that belief in God is valid.
Does not affect the argument I had made:
To take an example, if belief in the Abrahamic god had NOT spread by missionaries and conquerors; if instead YHWH had appeared to BOTH the Aztecs and the Hebrews and given them each identical lists of the Ten Commandments before peoples from Eurasia and the Americas ever made contact; then that would be pretty good evidence AGAINST the idea that belief in YHWH is product of culture. Of course, that's not what happened.
Mister T said:
And virtually all cultures had the instinctive belief that the moon orbits around the Earth......once again we're going in circles.
No, we're not, because once again that doesn't affect the rebuttal I was making to your argument. You argued: "
I could say the fact that Atheism didn't pop up until the 6th century B.C. ... is proof that belief in God is valid." This is a non-sequitur. The fact that this line of reasoning will get you to the correct conclusion when applied to certain examples (like the Moon orbiting the Earth) does not make it logically sound.
Mister T said:
Scholars have also demonstrated that belief in the God of Abraham has been predominantly montheistic and has remained consistently so to this day And my argument has been about consistency of testimony and evidence.....not chracter. Let's not muddy this any further.
Belief in Zeus has been predominantly polytheistic. Belief in Buddha has been predominantly atheistic and remains so to this day....
Consistency of testimony is only compelling in certain circumstances--namely, when the parties involved are not aware of the testimonies of others. Bigfoot sightings, alien abduction stories, and Native American encounters with the prankster god Coyote all have a consistency of testimony that one might expect, from a cultural delusion standpoint, when people have already heard lots of previous testimonies, so they can copy them or interpret events to fit them.
On the other hand, consistency of testimony would be compelling in my "Aztec example", since the ancient Aztecs and Hebrews did not have any contact with one another.
One would have to be open minded enough to consider the possibility of spirits before they could consider something such as the picture of a person ghost, evidence. Otherwise it's a wasted effort.
Fair enough, but that doesn't answer the issue I was raising:
If the evidence really is conclusive, as you have claimed, then it shouldn't lend itself to being a hoax or lighting anomaly. If it could easily have been a hoax or if it is not clear that what is being shown is the spirit of a dead person, then it isn't really "conclusive", is it?
Mister T said:
Well I for one, take pictures/video/testimonies of "orbs" and "mists" with a grain of salt as do most people who study ghosts. Most of those type of pictures could be easily debunked. Ghosts are supposedly the spirits of deceased people which is why those who study ghosts take EVP's and full-figured apparitions as support for that theory.
Here's a definition of EVP I found on
http://www.aaevp.com/faq/faq_evpitc.html#What_is_EVP/ITC :
Electronic Voice Phenomena (EVP) is the term traditionally used to describe unexpected sounds or voices sometimes found on recording media.
How do we go from unexpected sounds or voices to the disembodied voice of a dead person? A priori, it might as well be cross-chatter from interdimensional aliens on cell phones, or anything else one could imagine, natural or otherwise.
Mister T said:
There is video evidence for these things that the people at TAPS have caught on film.
There is documentation of that too.
Where?
Mister T said:
Scientists against phenomenon such as this are dictating a criteria of how they believe it should work. It's the same thing as creationists dictating how they believe evolution works to support their ideals. What if things don't work that way?
That's fine, but if ghosts ONLY appear in such a way as to never provide conclusive evidence, then we are justified in considering them with the same seriousness that we consider leprechauns, faries, and indeed gods that only appear in such a way as to never provide conclusive evidence.
Mister T said:
I appreciate a skeptic mind. I have one as well. Maybe that show I reffered you to will provide something compelling for you. For the record, I'm also open to the possibility that ghosts are not what they are claimed to be.
Fair enough.
Mister T said:
I'm not following you. We're talking about gauging a persons superstition and inexperience, drawing a line and calling that it a fact. These things are not measurable. How do you prove a person being superstitious a fact? Again, is there some type of graph I missed out on?
I guess I assumed that, wherever you and I draw the line, we both draw it to one side of many of the parties involved in ghost stories. For example, in the classic Amityville case:
Still, the Lutzes stuck to their story, reaping tens of thousands of dollars from the book and film rights.
The truth behind
The Amityville Horror was finally revealed when Butch DeFeo's lawyer, William Weber, admitted that he, along with the Lutzes, "created this horror story over many bottles of wine." The house was never really haunted; the horrific experiences they had claimed were simply made up. While the Lutzes profited handsomely from their story, Weber had planned to use the haunting to gain a new trial for his client.
(
http://www.csicop.org/sb/2005-03/ghosts.html )
The Lutzes were clearly an interested party. Can I "prove" that they were, as a "fact"? In some deeply technical philosophical sense, no. I'll give you that. But I think you and I and most people can agree that these people were an interested party.
Mister T said:
Have you ever been to outer space and witnessed heliocentism for yourself? Have you seen a germ with your own very eyes? If not, how can you say it's conclusive evidence using your reasoning? Those things still lie in the realm of subjectivity.
No, they don't. The phases on Venus that can be seen through a telescope can be seen and independently confirmed by anyone. The positions of the planets predicted by the heliocentric model can be confirmed using instruments as well. The fact that the germs you see under a microscope isn't a "subjective" experience can be established with controlled experiments: for example, make slides of different-looking cells; if people can identify the cells by looking at them under the microscope and without knowing beforehand which slide they are to look at, and if they get it right more often than you would expect by random guessing, then clearly this is an objective way of looking at something.