atotalstranger, I've presented my first argument to you. I still do not understand why you do not accept the fact that it is the mere existence of the future that would cause the demise of free-will, whether or not there was an omniscient being to know it.
I have been thinking a lot about this argument and I think it has a lot of merit. If the future exists now, then of course there can be no free will. I do not believe the future exists until it becomes the present and so I now understand earlier statements that only the present exists. Certainly the
concept of the future exists, but future events have no existence until they happen in the present.
So, you might say that if the future does not exist, how can God know it? Does He know the average weight of unicorns and other non-existent info? The difference between future events and other non-existent things is that future events WILL come into existence eventually. As such, they are not knowable by you and I, but should be in the realm of knowledge for an omniscient God, and the BIble supports this view of Him. Prophecy alone speaks to God's knowledge of future events.
Anyway, here is my other argument, along the more popular definition of omniscience (I dug it up from a previous thread:
Free Will Revisited)
Argument for Free-will and Omniscience
- 1. If the future is not known, then free-will exists. Argument premise
- 2. The future is known (b/c God is omniscient) Argument premise
- 3. In order for the future to exist, the past for that future must also exist. Nature of time
- 4. God could not know the future unless the past (all the time that leads up to that future) happened first. Follows from 3
- 5. The past happens before the future is known. Follows from 4
- 6. Free-will exists in that past Follows from 1 and 5
- 7. Therefore, free-will exists when the future is known as well.
Good stuff! My issue with this argument is step 4 for reasons I have explained above.