• Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:
    • Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
    • Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
    • Access to private conversations with other members.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!

Is Jesus a Mythical Character?

dogsgod

Well-Known Member
A few things.

First, when I said "primary" I mean the primary sources (i.e. ancient sources) which actually discuss the myths being compared with the gospels. Although single lines or events may be taken out of these sources and compared with parts of the gospels, when you compare the any one of the myths AS A WHOLE to the Jesus tradition, the similarity is far less striking, when it exists at all.

Second, there is no reason to write of Josephus as a whole, as most scholars agree (see in particular the Jewish scholar Vermes in his discussion of typical Josephan terminology within one of the passages concerning Jesus) that parts of Josephus' references to Jesus are genuine.

Third, you are correct to say "you can't use the bible to prove the bible." The problem, however, with your statement is that, unlike a historian, you are approaching the bible as a singular entity/document/article of faith/etc. Historians, on the other hand, examine the contexts, purposes, traditions, etc, behind the individual documents within the bible. If you compare, for example, Luke to other ancient histories you will find that many of these ancient histories are just a biased and full of incredible/miraculous stories. Yet so far none of the authors who have put forth works doubting entirely the existence of a historical Jesus have applied the same level of skeptism to equally unbelievable documents.

Fourth, even without the bible, the references by Tacitus and Josephus alone provide more evidence for a historical person Jesus than many ancient persons.

First of all, the author of Luke copied gMark almost word for word. He merely added his own birth story to the beginning and a post resurrection story, as well as some sayings that he copied from a book of sayings common with Matthew. The author of Matthew did likewise. The author of Mark was not aware of the birth story and his gospel ends with the women fleeing the empty tomb, afraid and telling no one. If there was an oral tradition one would expect the birth stories of Luke and Matthew to be similar, and the post ressurection stories to be similar. Also, if an oral tradition existed, why did the authors of Matthew and Luke copy gMark almost word for word? And lastly, the sayings that Luke and Matthew inserted into the storyline are placed in different parts of the story from one another. If there was a narrative accomaning these sayings, as in oral tradition, one would expect them to be placed consistantly into the storyline, and yet they are not.
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member
First of all, the author of Luke copied gMark almost word for word. He merely added his own birth story to the beginning and a post resurrection story, as well as some sayings that he copied from a book of sayings common with Matthew. The author of Matthew did likewise. The author of Mark was not aware of the birth story and his gospel ends with the women fleeing the empty tomb, afraid and telling no one. If there was an oral tradition one would expect the birth stories of Luke and Matthew to be similar, and the post ressurection stories to be similar. Also, if an oral tradition existed, why did the authors of Matthew and Luke copy gMark almost word for word? And lastly, the sayings that Luke and Matthew inserted into the storyline are placed in different parts of the story from one another. If there was a narrative accomaning these sayings, as in oral tradition, one would expect them to be placed consistantly into the storyline, and yet they are not.

Not true. Luke and Matthew both used at least two, though probably more, seperate sources. Both almost certainly used Mark. In addition, both probably used a text (oral or written) called Q. Finally, each other appears to have drawn some of their material from a source or sources unique to them. There are various explanations for this material, short of oral (or written) traditions seperate from Mark and Q which the authors used. For example, - 1. They could have just made it up, building upon material present in the tradition in an attempt to further their picture of Jesus 2. It is unclear just what should be included as part of Q, if it existed. It seems only reasonable to conclude that is Q existed, Matthew would have made use of some of it which Luke did not, and vice verse.
Acts is a work of second century myth making which conflicts with Paul's writings in an attempt to smooth over the conflicts between Paul and other apostles of his day.

This statement alone makes just about every statement you have made so far appear less convincing, because it betrays a complete lack of familiarity with the issues. Luke and Acts were written by the same author, and were likely two parts of the same book. For this reason, they are both dated to the first century.

As for disagreements between Paul and Acts, so what? Many ancient sources conflict with each other.


If there was a narrative accomaning these sayings, as in oral tradition, one would expect them to be placed consistantly into the storyline, and yet they are not.

Once again, you are demonstrating a lack of any knowledge about the subject here. Oral tradition is far more likely than a literary tradition to record sayings, parables, teachings, etc, from a narrative structure. Oral tradition MEANS in this case a collection of sayings, parables, miracle stories, and perhaps the passion and birth narratives), which were passed along (either controlled or uncontrolled, formally or informally) by person to person. Thes Q is simply a collection of sayings. Mark put various sayings and teachings in an over all narrative/life of Jesus. Most of this structure is artificially imposed as a literary structure on a oral tradition that lacked such a structure.
Josephus, yes; Tacitus, no.
I am not saying that Tacitus actually does provide good evidenc for the historical Jesus. Simply that a reference made to Christ by Tacitus within a century of Jesus (alongside with the references by Josephus) provide MORE evidence than for figures such as Homer, who had no such references within a century of his life (if he existed).
 
Last edited:

9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
The problem may well be your criteria for 'credible.' I believe the combination of Acts and Josephus, along with the nature of early Pagan anti-Christian polemic, render an historical Jesus the more reasonable inference.
Josephus in what way? Are you referring to the "James, brother of Jesus" passage, the Testimonium Flavianum as we have it now, some reconstruction of what the Testimonium Flavianum is thought to have been, or something else?
 

9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
I am not saying that Tacitus actually does provide good evidenc for the historical Jesus. Simply that a reference made to Christ by Tacitus within a century of Jesus (alongside with the references by Josephus) provide MORE evidence than for figures such as Homer, who had no such references within a century of his life (if he existed).
Since it seems (at least to me as a non-expert) that there's considerable doubt as to whether Homer did actually exist at all, aren't you setting the bar kinda low if your goal is to establish that Jesus really existed?
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member
Since it seems (at least to me as a non-expert) that there's considerable doubt as to whether Homer did actually exist at all, aren't you setting the bar kinda low if your goal is to establish that Jesus really existed?
Yes, if I were relying merely on Tacitus. I am not.
 

Dirty Penguin

Master Of Ceremony
A few things.

First, when I said "primary" I mean the primary sources (i.e. ancient sources) which actually discuss the myths being compared with the gospels. Although single lines or events may be taken out of these sources and compared with parts of the gospels, when you compare the any one of the myths AS A WHOLE to the Jesus tradition, the similarity is far less striking, when it exists at all.

What "ancient sources" outside the bible prove there was a historical Jesus? No one here, that I can tell, is arguing that the myths of the day is a 100% match to the biblical Jesus. What's been said is that there is similarity and those similarities are too bold and in your face to simply ignore. I believe it's the same with the Greek and Roman gods. Yes the Roman gods mirror the Greek gods but not in every detail. There is is enough parallel material in the pagan religions, in my opinion, to cast doubt on the historical Jesus. So now if that can be acknowledged then one can move forward to find out if the biblical Jesus was truly a historical figure and "if" he was then is he anything (at all) as the bible portrays him or was he simply one who bucked the system...


Second, there is no reason to write of Josephus as a whole, as most scholars agree (see in particular the Jewish scholar Vermes in his discussion of typical Josephan terminology within one of the passages concerning Jesus) that parts of Josephus' references to Jesus are genuine.

This goes both ways as far as offering any proof for a historical Jesus. The passage in Josephus used to prove the existence of Jesus is a bit harder to nail down because Josephus lived in the right time, lived in the right area and perhaps most importantly, was Jewish but the passage often quoted as proof of the existence of the biblical Jesus is believed to have been inserted by a Roman Catholic bishop, Eusebius, in the fourth century A.D. I don't even think scholars today use this interpolation as a proof text.


Third, you are correct to say "you can't use the bible to prove the bible." The problem, however, with your statement is that, unlike a historian, you are approaching the bible as a singular entity/document/article of faith/etc.

No I'm not and no I don't. You presume way too much. I approach each of the NT documents separately. I understand that each gospel (Mark, Matthew, John and Luke) were written to convey their point to specific crowds at different times. I don't and have never viewed them as all being written around the same time and being consistent...as we should see. It's without a doubt they are copies of each other. So no, I don't see them as one document or entity..etc. I already said they are inconsistent with each other and if they were used in a court of law as a proof text they would be thrown out.


Historians, on the other hand, examine the contexts, purposes, traditions, etc, behind the individual documents within the bible. If you compare, for example, Luke to other ancient histories you will find that many of these ancient histories are just a biased and full of incredible/miraculous stories. Yet so far none of the authors who have put forth works doubting entirely the existence of a historical Jesus have applied the same level of skeptism to equally unbelievable documents.

This is rich. Luke is not a good example. If we compare the "Book of Luke" to the "Book of Acts" we find in them there own set of inconsistencies. Furthermore, The author of the book of Luke says outright that the information he wrote down was gathered by those who said they were eyewitnesses. But it's without a doubt that his gospel is pretty much a carbon copy of Mark filled with even more stories from people he supposedly talked to.


Fourth, even without the bible, the references by Tacitus and Josephus alone provide more evidence for a historical person Jesus than many ancient persons.

You can't be serious. Tacticus most likely gathered his information from the christians of the day. The Annals do not prove that the biblical Jesus existed but merely that Christians existed in the First Century A.D., which no scholar has ever disputed. Tacitus lived too far away from the events that supposedly took place in Galilee almost a hundred years before his birth to know about them first hand. I've even seen information out there to suggest that in the Annals 15.44 the word originally was changed from chrestianos ("the good"), to read as christianos ("the Christians"). I'm still researching this one.

So I thought I'd look outside the box (book) and to see if there was anything reported in the Dead Sea Scrolls and there is nothing there mentioning the biblical Jesus.
The Dead Sea Scrolls were most likely written by the Essenes during the period from about 200 B.C. to 68 C.E./A.D. Although the Qumran community existed during the time of the ministry of the supposed biblical Jesus, none of the Scrolls refer to Him, nor do they mention any of his follower's as described in the New Testament. So even here we have "documentation" recorded in history outside the bible but does not mention this supposed longtime awaited savior nor does its mentions his followers.
 
Last edited:

Jayhawker Soule

-- untitled --
Premium Member
Josephus in what way? Are you referring to the "James, brother of Jesus" passage, the Testimonium Flavianum as we have it now, some reconstruction of what the Testimonium Flavianum is thought to have been, or something else?
The Jame's reference (Antiquities 20:9) is widely considered to be authentic.
 

Jayhawker Soule

-- untitled --
Premium Member
The passage in Josephus used to prove the existence of Jesus is a bit harder to nail down because Josephus lived in the right time, lived in the right area and perhaps most importantly, was Jewish but the passage often quoted as proof of the existence of the biblical Jesus is believed to have been inserted by a Roman Catholic bishop, Eusebius, in the fourth century A.D. ...
You take your presuppositions and dribble them out as truths. In fact ...
  1. Only one of two passages are deemed an interpolation.
  2. Many view it as only a partial interpolation.
  3. There is no evidence of culpability on the part of Eusebius.
Now, what of Antiquities 20:9?
 

9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
The Jame's reference (Antiquities 20:9) is widely considered to be authentic.
Right; I mainly wanted to find out whether you considered the Testimonium Flavianum to be a modified version of some earlier passage that was an authentic reference to Jesus as well... something like Shlomo Pines' translation from Arabic, for instance:

Pines' version simply describes Jesus as "a wise man" whose "conduct was good" and who "was known to be virtuous." Moreover, it does not mention any involvement of the Jewish leaders in Jesus' trial, a good test of authenticity; any Christian apologist tempted to tamper with the text would almost surely have mentioned the Jews' role. As far as the resurrection is concerned, the 10th century manuscript recounts it only as a claim: "His disciples ... reported that he had appeared to them three days after his crucifixion and that he was alive; accordingly, he was perhaps the Messiah concerning whom the prophets have recounted wonders."
 

9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
3. There is no evidence of culpability on the part of Eusebius.
I'm not sure about that. I agree that there isn't anything like a confession from Eusebius saying "it was me; I put in all that stuff", but it seems that the Testimonium Flavianum wasn't there when Origen got ahold of Antiquities... or at least not in a form that was exciting enough that Origen would think to mention it, which to me seems odd, since he wrote at length about the other reference to Jesus. Then, by the time Eusebius has it, it's somehow gained the Testimonium.

I think the most logical position is that somebody after Origen altered or added the Testimonium and Eusebius is on the short list of people who might have done it.

This certainly isn't conclusive evidence, but it is evidence.
 

logician

Well-Known Member
They aren't as similar as Freke and Gandy make them appear. You should read the primary sources or good scholarship rather than that trash. For example, the hellenistic Mithras (the one who died and resurrected) doesn't date until after the four canonical gospels were written.

Who said anything about Freke and Gandy, their similarities are well known, and those that deny it simly are putting their heads in the sand.
 

logician

Well-Known Member
I would still say that scholarship (including that from atheists, Jews, agnostics, etc) is moving towards accepting more of the gospels, including "a good part" of the gospels, as historical. I have already defined "a good part" as dozens of sayings/parables and a few events.

What parts, anything Jesus did in isolation could not possiby have had any witnesses, the birth and death(ressurrection) stories are obvious fiction, the rest are simply parables that could easily have been rehashes of stories from the OT, or from some other religions/philosophies. I can't imagine what you are talking about.
 

Jayhawker Soule

-- untitled --
Premium Member
... it seems that the Testimonium Flavianum wasn't there when Origen got ahold of Antiquities... or at least not in a form that was exciting enough that Origen would think to mention it, which to me seems odd, since he wrote at length about the other reference to Jesus.
There was zero reason for Origen to reference Josephus.
 

Jayhawker Soule

-- untitled --
Premium Member
Right; I mainly wanted to find out whether you considered the Testimonium Flavianum to be a modified version of some earlier passage that was an authentic reference to Jesus as well ...
I suspect so, but it is no more than an unverifiable suspicion reinforced by the widely held belief that 20:9 is authentic. It is,in any event, more important in my opinion.
 

Dirty Penguin

Master Of Ceremony
You take your presuppositions and dribble them out as truths. In fact ...

You seem to come down hard on me here. It's without a doubt I see no historical Jesus but as the beginning of my last post pointed out that if there was one he might not have been the magic wilding god/man we've been programmed to think exist.


  1. Only one of two passages are deemed an interpolation.
  2. Many view it as only a partial interpolation.
Partial or not...it is what it is. My attempt was to show that you can't just throw Josephus out there not understanding that some may not see it as a convincing argument given his work, or at least a small portion, has gone through some tampering, just as we have seen with the gospels


  1. There is no evidence of culpability on the part of Eusebius.
Thank you for clearing this up even though I never said there was. In my researching around it was mentioned that it could have been a possibility.

Now, what of Antiquities 20:9?


Yea, I've seen that one as well. Although a lot of people out there seem to agree on this one, it is in the same boat when it comes to its authenticity. Just looking around the jury seems to still be out on this one. Scholars are for and against it. If we are simply to believe scholars based on their credentials and their ability and or bias to interpret these writings as fact then how about the scholars who are against these writings? I simply believe that if the passage is true (big if) then he was similar to Tacitus, going by what he had heard from christians of the time...

Since the Dead Sea Scrolls go back 200 years before the biblical Jesus and almost 70 years after him should we expect to find anything in them in reference to the biblical Jesus, his followers and his ministry...considering that his movement was so widely known and his actions so widely viewed and talked about or what of his supposed death that had the writers of Mark/Matthew writing around the same time as the last of the Dead Sea Scrolls were being written. It would appear that when the Essenes were keeping their records they left out this tidbit of history. Since they were so apocalyptic one would think the Jesus story would fit in with what they were all about unless the story wasn't as glorious as we have been lead to think.
 

9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
There was zero reason for Origen to reference Josephus.
Yet he did. He specifically wrote that Josephus did not accept Jesus as Christ. Anyone who would say that after reading the version of the Testimonium Flavianum that Eusebius posessed would have been lying. That version explicitly says right in it, "He was the Christ".

I've heard this explained away with the claim that Origen only had fragments of Antiquities, not the whole book, but I don't think this explanation works. He knew that Antiquities had 20 volumes and he apparently felt familiar enough with it to make statements about the work as a whole. I don't think this meshes well with the idea of a historian who knows that he's working with a small fragment of a larger body of work.

Personally, I think it's fairly clear that Origen did not see the version of the Testimonium that Eusebius referenced... if Origen had any version of it at all.

I suspect so, but it is no more than an unverifiable suspicion reinforced by the widely held belief that 20:9 is authentic. It is,in any event, more important in my opinion.
Antiquities 20:9 is more important?
 

Jayhawker Soule

-- untitled --
Premium Member
Although a lot of people out there seem to agree on this one, it is in the same boat when it comes to its authenticity.
That is embarrassingly inaccurate.

Since the Dead Sea Scrolls go back 200 years before the biblical Jesus and almost 70 years after him should we expect to find anything in them in reference to the biblical Jesus, ...
Of course not. Please don't do yourself the disservice of burdening your ignorance of Josephus with your ignorance of the Dead Sea Scrolls.
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member
Who said anything about Freke and Gandy, their similarities are well known, and those that deny it simly are putting their heads in the sand.


So far you have been unable to cite anyone more credible, and this appears to be your only source (which explains why your information is so bad).

This goes both ways as far as offering any proof for a historical Jesus. The passage in Josephus used to prove the existence of Jesus is a bit harder to nail down because Josephus lived in the right time, lived in the right area and perhaps most importantly, was Jewish but the passage often quoted as proof of the existence of the biblical Jesus is believed to have been inserted by a Roman Catholic bishop, Eusebius, in the fourth century A.D. I don't even think scholars today use this interpolation as a proof text.

Scholar's today are no longer seeking to "prove" the existence of the historical Jesus. They all acknowledge he existed. They are more concerned with determining what in the gospels is historical, what Jesus' mission was, how much of the gospels represents the early church rather than Jesus, etc. So you are right but for the wrong reasons. And there is a wide consensus that parts of this reference to Jesus is Josephus.
This is rich. Luke is not a good example. If we compare the "Book of Luke" to the "Book of Acts" we find in them there own set of inconsistencies.

You say things like this, but apparently you simply haven't read enough primary source material (i.e. histories and "lives" by ancient historians) to know enough to make comparison. Herodotus is full of inconsistencies. Livy includes miraculous tales. All ancient historians (and true, some are better than others) hold themselves to far lower standards than modern historians.

Furthermore, The author of the book of Luke says outright that the information he wrote down was gathered by those who said they were eyewitnesses. But it's without a doubt that his gospel is pretty much a carbon copy of Mark filled with even more stories from people he supposedly talked to.

You are without doubt but you are also without peer in the academic world when you assert this. There are a select few scholars who doubt the existence of Q, but most of them argue that Luke therefore borrowed from Mark and Matthew (in addition to some sayings of from his own traditions or innovation). There are even some today who argue priority of Luke (see Hengel's "The Four Gospels and the One Gospel of Jesus Christ") or that Luke is the first gospel (see Flusser's book "Jesus" revised 1998).

However, no one argues that Luke or Matthew are "carbon copies" of Mark. In any case, your statement about eyewitnesses has been used in several ways. Many argue it is at least in part a mere literary device, or that he believed Mark and Q were eyewitnesses. Others (and I agree) argue that Luke, although he had access to Q and Mark, may have had access to seperate tradition(s), and also that he probably had knowledge of the oral Jesus tradition (which continued to exist alongside the written) and access to those to whom it had been "handed down" in order to check against Mark/Q (if Q wasn't entirely oral to begin with). None of this would have guarenteed accuracy by any means, as even within strictly controlled oral tradition one must leave room for distortion and innovation, and in any event, even if all sayings and events were accurately transmitted (which, so far as I know, no serious historian argues) this only means that those around Jesus passed on the information as they saw it.
You can't be serious. Tacticus most likely gathered his information from the christians of the day. The Annals do not prove that the biblical Jesus existed but merely that Christians existed in the First Century A.D., which no scholar has ever disputed. Tacitus lived too far away from the events that supposedly took place in Galilee almost a hundred years before his birth to know about them first hand.

Apparently you don't take the time to read my posts very carefully, which I suggest you do if you have any desire to actually remark on them intelligently. I said that the reference by Tacitus and Josephus alone provide MORE evidence than many ancient persons. You seem to think I said the provide GOOD evidence for the historical Jesus. Many ancient people, like Homer or Pythagoras, have no evidence for their existence a century or so after they lived. With Tacitus and Josephus, we have two references within a century, and one of them (after removing Christian addition/corruption) is close enough to argue for the historicity of Jesus alone. Arguments have been made on less for the historicity of ancient people.

So I thought I'd look outside the box (book) and to see if there was anything reported in the Dead Sea Scrolls and there is nothing there mentioning the biblical Jesus.The Dead Sea Scrolls were most likely written by the Essenes during the period from about 200 B.C. to 68 C.E./A.D. Although the Qumran community existed during the time of the ministry of the supposed biblical Jesus, none of the Scrolls refer to Him, nor do they mention any of his follower's as described in the New Testament. So even here we have "documentation" recorded in history outside the bible but does not mention this supposed longtime awaited savior nor does its mentions his followers.

Before you can comment intelligently on just how much evidence is needed and of what type to talk about "historical" people, I suggest you acquaint yourself with at least the nature of ancient sources. Not only were they full of the same kind of problems contained in the gospels, but often enough they were very removed from the period in question. So far, the only person any one in this thread (other than me) has compared to Jesus (as far as the amount of evidence for their existence goes) is Julias Caesar, are horrible example. There are many, many people in ancient history for whom the only evidence of existence is a passing reference almost a century later, or even less. Many ancient biographies were written centuries after the person in question.
 
Top