I believe John is saying that God is the Word and that means God became flesh. Of course that is impossible so what John really means is that God inhabited the body of Jesus.
No no no… I can tell from what you say that you are grabbing at reasons not to believe the truth.
Even ‘God inhabiting the body of Jesus’ is stressing a truth: In one instance you are saying “God became man” (GOD BECAME JESUS!!!!) and the next instance you are saying that “God came inhabited the body of Jesus” (GOD inhabited the body of a man).
It is exactly this kind of confused, multifaceted trinity ideology that allows for squirming away from truthful scriptures.
No no no!!! There are TWO uses of the term ‘GOD’ in John 1:1… One use is as the
TITLE of the ALMIGHTY ONE, the other is as the
MEANING of word, a SUPERLATIVE ADJECTIVE, which is all or any of:
- Greatest of all - ‘Almighty’
- Sovereign
- The Mightiest
- Most Monumental
- Overwhelming
- Irresistible
- Absolute
- Most Gloriest
- …
Fill in the dottied space with any from the above list:
- ‘The word [of GOD the Father] was …!
And tie that in with “God said, ‘
Let there be light!’”. “
And there was light!’ - the CREATION OF THE PHYSICAL WORLD… from where God chose one galaxy in all galaxies and one solar system out of all solar system in that, and one planet from all planets in that, as his chosen one, the planet he delighted in, in which he created an image in physicality of himself to rule over all that he created:
- The Spirit (Himself) ruling over the invisible Spirit World, and the physical (His image) ruling over the visible physical world
God did not create a man in his own image to rule over the spirit world. He, God, is from everlasting to everlasting, ETERNALLY, the ruler over the Spirit world.
Now tell me that that utterance of God (the Spirit ruler) was not ‘
GOD’ (superlative adjective), a monumental word, majestic and almighty?
- ‘The word of God was GOD’!
How would you read: ‘The God (1) of the Israelites was GOD (2) above all other pagan Gods (3)’?