Ok, good.
Hmm. So, the bible (varying versions I assume) does lay out what is considered fornication but if you follow the NIV translation you're exempt from committing sin if you engage in premarital sex?
I'd like to see someone point out where fornication is defined in any version. All I'm saying is that the word does not appear in the NIV, which was composed of scholars from all around the world, and not just King James' scholars. I don't believe any version describes what constitutes fornication, despite having the word present.
And I'm not sure where I said someone is exempt from committing sin based on what version you read. I believe that premarital sex being a sin is common among mainstream Christianity doctrine, regardless of what Bible they're using for sermons and also regardless if it's present in their scriptures or not.