Barrackubus
Residential Occultist
When it comes to the Bible nobody knows what is and.what is not inspired...
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What if they're in the Ethiopian Bible? Why does only the Roman Bible count?Anyway, if they're not in the Bible
What if they're in the Ethiopian Bible? Why does only the Roman Bible count?
What if it's in the Sinaiticus? Or the Muratorian Canon? Why do we assume that Providence blessed the Romans with Divine writ and not others? Because they managed to spread their version the farthest?
Then why the OP? Of course that canon is incomplete, because there are other known texts that have been long established as canon in other traditions.Not trying to exclude those individual canonized versions of the Bible. It is that I am addressing the protestant king james bible or any derivative of that canon....
Considering the KJV didn't remove any books of the Catholic Bible (at least the original didn't, they removed the Apocrypha about 200 years after its first publication), I don't see where you get "That's how the KJV worked".All scripture is given by inspiration of God.
So, any book that is inspired by God is scripture.
If a book is found to contain error, then that book is removed, that is how King James project worked.
How do you know God didn't preserve the Bible in the Ethiopian Canon?God promises by faith that the Bible would be preserved.
and keep it true forever.
Back in the day, there were numerous canons circulating. The DSS authors as well had their own canons. Who is to decide whose Canon was valid scripture or not?The Church Fathers like Clement went by works like Apocalpyse of Peter and the Shepherd of Hermas. What gave the Romans authority 400 years later to throw them out?All scripture is given by inspiration of God.
So, any book that is inspired by God is scripture.
Says who? You? How about no single person has the right to say who is inspired and who isn't instead. Why would anyone believe that the KJV authors were "inspired" just because someone says so? Why weren't the NIV authors inspired instead? There's a difference between "not liking it" and "not believing it because the facts are wrong".The committee was inpired by God, and no single person has right to uninspire anything just because he doesnt like it.
Looks like you're unaware of how it really went down. They basically just collected whatever texts were available and they weren't very many. It was mostly based on earlier English renditions. Where are you learning your facts?They went around the world, took all known texts of the Bible that had been copied for the last 2000 years and compared them
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/King_James_version#SourcesSources
The translators appear to have otherwise made no first-hand study of ancient manuscript sources, even those that – like the Codex Bezae – would have been readily available to them.[121] In addition to all previous English versions, including the Douay–Rheims Bible, they also consulted contemporary vernacular translations in Spanish, French, Italian and German. They also made wide and eclectic use of all printed editions in the original languages then available, including the ancient Syriac New Testament printed with an interlinear Latin gloss in the Antwerp Polyglot of 1573.[122]
The translators took the Bishop's Bible as their source text, and where they departed from that in favour of another translation, this was most commonly the Geneva Bible. However, the degree to which readings from the Bishop's Bible survived into final text of the King James Bible varies greatly from company to company, as did the propensity of the King James translators to coin phrases of their own. John Bois's notes of the General Committee of Review show that they discussed readings derived from a wide variety of sources and versions, including explicitly both Henry Savile's 1610 edition of the works of John Chrysostom, and also the Rheims New Testament, which was the primary source for many of the literal alternative readings provided for the marginal notes.
The church has never claimed that the texts are inerrant.If a book is found to contain error, then that book is removed, that is how King James project worked.
The Bible has a verse in Jude verses 14 and 15 where it says,
...And Enoch the seventh from Adam prophesied of these things, Behold the Lord cometh with ten thousand of his saints, To execute judgement upon all, and to convince all that are ungodly among them of all their ungodly deeds which they have ungodly commited, and of their hard speeches which ungodly sinners have spoken against him...
If the Bible is annointed and gives itself credibility by saying all scripture is inspired by God, where then is this prophecy recorded? It is a scripture out of the book of Enoch and is.not in the canon of scripture? Why is a book used as a reference for scripture not apart of the Bible? As a Bible believing Christian I would question that??
And how do we know this?
What about the myriads of works mentioned like in Chronicles, of "Iddo the Seer"? Where are they? Ascension of Isaiah was apparently canonical by the time of Chronicles. Why isn't it now?
So why did the Romans get to decide what the real deal is and not the Ethiopians for example? Why do the Masoretic Jews get to decide on what was authentic but not the Qumran communities? Even the Rabbinicists disagreed on which works should be included. Do we go with Majority opinion?
Like?because some of it contradicts the torah.
I see no reason to base my views on what Masoretes decided 500-1000+ years after the DSS authors. There's no reason to believe the 1st century Canon was in any way the same set of documents as earlier. And in 2 Esdras, it says there are 24 books for everyone, and 70 books for the wise. Did this tradition come out of thin air by the author of 2 Esdras? We also see that Sirach was called Scripture by the Talmud, so it appears that the total discarding of the Apocrypha was a later reaction than what the initial early Talmudists indicate.they were not included by the Jews, so why should they be included by the christians?
And? It also appears Josephus went by 1 Esdras.in the 1st century Josephus lists the jewish cannon and he doesnt mention those books as part of it.
Raymond E. Brown writes: "It appears that I Esdras enjoyed more popularity than Esdras B [Ezra-Nehemiah] among those who cited the Gk bible. Josephus used it, and the early Church Fathers seem to have thought of it as Scripture. It was really Jerome with his love for the Hebr bible who set the precedent for rejecting I Esdras because it did not conform to Hebr Ezr/Neh
Oh they did? By all means, show your source for this. I would love to see when and where the Jews finalized their canon long before the 1st century. I imagine so would a great many scholars.the romans didnt decide....the jews already had their cannon long before the 1st century.
So why was Esther approved? Interestingly, Sirach is listed as scripture in the Talmud. With that said, why would works like "Iddo the Seer" and "Gad" even be mentioned in Chronicles if it was to be rejected?A bible book was accepted as authentic by the jews if the prophecies of the book proved to be true prophecies and if the writer was above reproach.
Like?
I see no reason to base my views on what Masoretes decided 500-1000+ years after the DSS authors. There's no reason to believe the 1st century Canon was in any way the same set of documents as earlier. And in 2 Esdras, it says there are 24 books for everyone, and 70 books for the wise. Did this tradition come out of thin air by the author of 2 Esdras? We also see that Sirach was called Scripture by the Talmud, so it appears that the total discarding of the Apocrypha was a later reaction than what the initial early Talmudists indicate.
And? It also appears Josephus went by 1 Esdras.
1 Esdras
Oh they did? By all means, show your source for this. I would love to see when and where the Jews finalized their canon long before the 1st century. I imagine so would a great many scholars.
So why was Esther approved? Interestingly, Sirach is listed as scripture in the Talmud. With that said, why would works like "Iddo the Seer" and "Gad" even be mentioned in Chronicles if it was to be rejected?
the BOE names 'seven' archangels. The bible only has one archangel and his name is Michael...even the expression 'archangel' is only found in the singular in the bible.
josephus may have 'used' it, but there is quite a difference between viewing it as canonical and 'using' it. Here is what josephus states regarding the hebrew cannon:
Against Apion (I, 38-41 [8]) "We do not possess myriads of inconsistent books, conflicting with each other. Our books, those which are justly accredited, are but two and twenty, and contain the record of all time. Of these, five are the books of Moses, comprising the laws and the traditional history from the birth of man down to the death of the lawgiver. . . . From the death of Moses until Artaxerxes, who succeeded Xerxes as king of Persia, the prophets subsequent to Moses wrote the history of the events of their own times in thirteen books. The remaining four books contain hymns to God and precepts for the conduct of human life.” Thus Josephus shows that the canon of the Hebrew Scriptures had been fixed long before the first century C.E.
the source is Jospephus. A 1st century jewish historian.
a writings worth is found in its content. The account of Esther provides valuable historical information.
It is completely in harmony with the rest of the inspired Scriptures and shows us how we can still remain loyal to God while living under “superior authorities” of a foreign land. The account also helps us to see that we, like Ester, can and should use every legal means possible to defend the interests of God’s people and their worship.
As for the writing of Ben Sirach of jerusalem, he contradicts Paul’s statement at Romans 5:12-19, which places the responsibility for sin upon Adam, Ecclesiasticus says: “From the woman came the beginning of sin, and by her we all die.” (25:33, Dy) And he also shows to be a hardliner when it comes to women for he says he prefers “any wickedness, but the wickedness of a woman.”—25:19, Dy.
Would a person writing under Gods direction say that any sort of sin is acceptable as long as its not the sin from a woman? I think not!
Chronicals can mention the names of whoever it likes because it is an historical account about historical people. Naming people is what historians do.
Can you provide a single source that considers Esther to be historically valid?
I've gone over this elsewhere, using Paul to discredit Sirach simply doesn't work. Why is Paul the inspired Epistle but not Sirach? I think Paul's epistles are not at all "in harmony" with the scriptures, or the other works of the NT for that matter whatsoever. The early Nazarene Jews felt similarly. Why should one believe Paul's epistles are valid by this logic? Because the early Orthodox Church agreed on them? Why not the books Clement and Iraneus went by like Shepherd of Hermas and Apocalypse of Peter?
That has absolutely nothing to do with historical authenticity.]the fesitval of Purim was established by Mordecai himself in praise and thanksgiving for the salvation of the jews in persia.
Can you name a single scholar or link that would in any way say that Esther is remotely historically accurate, especially by that logic? That's as circular reasoning as it gets. What information about the Persian empire is in any way represented there that can be matched with historical sources?Purim is a celebration based on the historical account of Esther. It is still celebrated today and has been celebrated ever since it was established in the 4th century BCE. It think that is plenty of evidence that the book of esther is historically authentic. The information in it about the persian empire is accurate and the details it gives about the inner workings of the kings court, which would only have been known by eye witnesses, is in harmony with what archeology reveals about the persian empire.
So you could say the same for Maccabees.So its not a fanciful account, there's no mystiscism or magic or myths associated with it. Its simply a very well documented piece of Jewish history written by an eyewitness.
That's disputable. The Nazarenes would most certainly disagree, and the overall Authenticity of Acts is disputed by most scholars. According to F.C. Baur and others, the "Pseudo-Clementine epistles" defacto used "Simon Magus" as a code word for Paul (whose story bears more than a passing resemblance, as in almost totally identical).Paul was a christian, a member of the jerusalem congregation and a man chosen by Jesus himself.
That's disputable too. I see no reason to believe he had ample proof. Because he said so? By the same logic, the Shepherd of Hermas had ample proof of being a prophet. You're simply giving standard Christian rhetoric, the reasoning is fallacious and not supportable.Paul had ample proof of being a prophet and of having the holy spirit upon him.
Ummm, why can't I say that Ben Sirach was given the gift.For that reason alone I can take the word of Paul over the word of Ben Sirach anyday.
1) That in no way proves that the canon was closed by the 4th century, Josephus was of the Sadducee opinion and his word is by no means final on anything.Besides, we dont need Pauls writings to confirm that Ben Sirach was a fraud... we can see that from the words of Josephus which shows that the hebrew canon was considered 'complete' from the 4th century BCE:
This entire post is filled with assumptions and presumptions, why does Jerome's word count but not Clement's or Iraneus's or Origen's?And the thing is, Jerome (3rd century) made a list of the canon, as was current in his day, when he translated the Vulgate....and even back then, they knew which books were not a part of the inspired record.
So explain again why you're giving Jerome some kind of final say over the earlier Church fathers again?After listing the inspired books, he writes in his prologue to the books of Samuel and Kings in the Vulgate: “Thus there are twenty-two books . . . This prologue of the Scriptures can serve as a fortified approach to all the books which we translate from the Hebrew into Latin; so that we may know that whatever is beyond these must be put in the apocrypha.”
Okay, so you assume that Josephus and Jerome somehow have this final word of authority that trumps other sources....because....?And according to Jerome, he based his list from that of Josephus of the 1st century. So any books written between the 4th century BCE and 1st century CE (and most apocrypha are) could not be considered part of the hebrew canon if we accept the words of Josephus
Pegg said:
That has absolutely nothing to do with historical authenticity.
Can you name a single scholar or link that would in any way say that Esther is remotely historically accurate, especially by that logic? That's as circular reasoning as it gets. What information about the Persian empire is in any way represented there that can be matched with historical sources?
That's disputable. The Nazarenes would most certainly disagree, and the overall Authenticity of Acts is disputed by most scholars. According to F.C. Baur and others, the "Pseudo-Clementine epistles" defacto used "Simon Magus" as a code word for Paul (whose story bears more than a passing resemblance, as in almost totally identical).
That's disputable too. I see no reason to believe he had ample proof. Because he said so? By the same logic, the Shepherd of Hermas had ample proof of being a prophet. You're simply giving standard Christian rhetoric, the reasoning is fallacious and not supportable.
Ummm, why can't I say that Ben Sirach was given the gift.
This entire post is filled with assumptions and presumptions, why does Jerome's word count but not Clement's or Iraneus's or Origen's?
So explain again why you're giving Jerome some kind of final say over the earlier Church fathers again?
Okay, so you assume that Josephus and Jerome somehow have this final word of authority that trumps other sources....because....?
some of the features of its historical accuracy have been pointed out in the WT commentary from the study aid "All scripture Inspired" publication which states:
10 sons of Haman? Archaeological discoveries that describe the rooms? Court officials and attendants? Okay, can you please provide a reference to where these claims are coming from so we can see the historical accuracy which they are referring to? Perhaps we should start a thread on the authenticity of Esther's historicity. With that said, I see no reason why Maccabees should be discarded.
"
Why were they the ones telling unlikely stories and not the author of Acts?and they would claim such all without any evidence... old men telling unlikely stories as they do.
Why do you accept the account of Paul's miracles and visions but not the Shepherd of Hermas's? Why is anyone supposed to believe the Miracles of Paul in the writ as proof of anything as if it trumps the accounts in the Apocryphal works like Acts of Peter?The miracles Paul performed are what provide the proof of holy spirit upon him. As Jesus said John 10:37 If I am not doing the works of my Father, do not believe me. 38 But if I am doing them, even though YOU do not believe me, believe the works, in order that YOU may come to know and may continue knowing that the Father is in union with me and I am in union with the Father.”
Like how Paul demeaned women when he said they should not teach or have authority over men? Like how Moses said that women must marry their rapists (at least how its commonly translated)? Was it wrong for Solomon to say it's better to sleep near a Lion and a Dragon than a wrathful headstrong woman? That's a completely subjective idea and bears no logical reason to disclude Sirach as writ.If Ben Sirach was speaking by Gods spirit, he would not have demeaned the female of Gods creation the way he did.
Excuse me? Sirach is all about using one's free will in the best way possible, whence do you derive this bizarre interpretation?Nor would he claim that mankind do not have free will
What? Have you even read Sirach? What are you talking about?, nor would he claim that God is indifferent to the behaviors of mankind or that God does not reward virtue
.Seriously, I don't think you've read Sirach because you are stating the exact opposite of what Sirach teaches, which is to be righteous and obey the commandments and to practice righteousness, how on EARTH are you deriving this view of Sirach? I have no idea. Admit if you haven't actually read it and we can clear this up.These are pretty basic concepts in the hebrew scriptures... God wants mankind to practice righteousness, so obviously he is not indifferent as B.S claims.
Seriously, where are you getting this? This is mind boggling. I just reread Sirach the other day. This is absolutely ludicrous. This would be like saying that Jesus teaches to go kill people and rob them. Where are you getting this completely erroneous interpretation of Sirach? List the verses you speak of or kindly admit that you have no clue what you're referring to.And what a contradiction of belief, to admonish adherence to the law of moses, while at the same time say that God doesnt care what we do. Thats crazy.
In his day. And before his day, the Church Fathers had a wide variety of canons and accepted books. Like Shepherd of Hermas which was canonical to the authors of the Sinaiticus, as well as Epistle to Barnabas.there will always be some who want to go against the grain, but Jerome compiled the books that were accepted as canonical in his day. That means that in his day, the mainstream christians and Jews (according to Josephus) held to books that make up the bible today.
By the later Church Fathers.anything besides these were viewed as uninspired
Judging by your spiel about Sirach, these "reasons we can see" are bizarre strawman that in no way shape or form represent an accurate reading of the text.for reasons that we can see when we examine the contents of the apochrypha and compare them to the books of the canon.
Please, seriously, quote this verse you speak of that you keep referring to, that's not at ALL what Sirach says whatsoever.We can see how they contradict the canon such as Ben Sirach when he says that God is indifferent to the way we behave and that he does not reward those who do good.
And the earlier Church fathers didn't have their reputations to consider? So you're saying that Iraneus, Clement, and Origen had no concern for their reputations and did deliberately stupid things?because they were both well respected and well known scholars who would not have done something deliberately as stupid as leave out a whole range of books and claim that those books were not accepted as inspired if they were accepted as inspired.
they had their reputations to consider
10 sons of Haman? Archaeological discoveries that describe the rooms? Court officials and attendants? Okay, can you please provide a reference to where these claims are coming from so we can see the historical accuracy which they are referring to? Perhaps we should start a thread on the authenticity of Esther's historicity. With that said, I see no reason why Maccabees should be discarded.
Why do you accept the account of Paul's miracles and visions but not the Shepherd of Hermas's? Why is anyone supposed to believe the Miracles of Paul in the writ as proof of anything as if it trumps the accounts in the Apocryphal works like Acts of Peter?
Excuse me? Sirach is all about using one's free will in the best way possible, whence do you derive this bizarre interpretation?
What? Have you even read Sirach? What are you talking about?
.Seriously, I don't think you've read Sirach because you are stating the exact opposite of what Sirach teaches, which is to be righteous and obey the commandments and to practice righteousness, how on EARTH are you deriving this view of Sirach? I have no idea. Admit if you haven't actually read it and we can clear this up.