"shivsomashekhar, post: 4854652, member: 56157"
Namaste,
As I said earlier, the distinction between the four Vedas is noted in the main Upanishads - which invalidates the Puranic story of Vyasa's redaction. The only argument that can go against this is if you say the main Upanishads were created after the time of Vyasa.
tatrAparA RRigvedo yajurvedaH sAmavedo.atharvavedaH
shikShA kalpo vyAkaraNaM niruktaM Chando jyotiShamiti |
atha parA yayA tadakSharamadhigamyate || Mundaka 1.1.5 ||
Ill try to simplify it, the 4 Veda listed in the Upanishads (which probebly were composed after the Samhitas) are the Samhitas (Collection of Mantras), these 4 contain 3 preexisting types of Mantras such as Rik, Yajus and Saman (as we can find reference to these three types in the Samhita collection them self), so to say that one builds off another (such as yajurVeda build off RigVeda, as you previously did) is not accurate as this is like saying the apple builds off and comes post the banana, the point is these are two different types of Mantras.
We cannot say the Rik
type Mantras came before the Yajus
type Mantras, because we don't have this data, but when we consider the traditional view that these 3
types were all in one collection until someone split them into the 4 we have today, now if the tradition holds Vyasa (or Krishna Dwapiyana or whomever) therefore we cannot discount this claim completely.
Maybe they knew something that we did not?
This is all am trying to say in this regard.
Now as for the OP question, can anyone here demonstrate that "Mantra", is a Language?