shmogie
Well-Known Member
" Article 1, section 8, only applies to a militia in one way, giving the federal government the right to activate it in an emergency.So when the Constitution uses the term "militia," it just means "a group of citizens coming together in crisis?"
The Constitution (in Article 1, Section 8) gives Congress the power to organize and discipline the militia. It also gives the states the power to oversee training of the militia.
Do you think that Congress - and the states - have these broad powers over any citizen who might group together in a crisis?
Nowhere is it stated that the government has any responsibility in regulating it.
" the right of the PEOPLE to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed "
Why doesn't it say that the right of militia members to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed ?
Because THE PEOPLE are the militia, or a part of them.
The amendment mentions a militia, then gives the right to be armed to the entire people. These boys were highly intelligent, if they meant only members of a militia could be armed, they never would have said the right applies to the people, all the people.
THE PEOPLE is used in other parts of the Constitution, check and see if it applies to only certain people.
In Federalist 46, James Madison emphasized " the advantage of being armed, which Americans possess over almost all the PEOPLE of every other nation".
If only militia members could be armed, he certainly would know, and would have said so.
He said AMERICANS, and PEOPLE. no militia..
Every American has the right to be armed, all the People