Here is my rebuttal to the article presented.
Some of the ablest scholars of the world deny that he ever lived at all.
As of 1906, when Schweitzer produced his classic on the subject, the ablest of scholars accepted that Jesus in fact existed. The divinity, the miracles, and the supernatural were taken into question, but it was agreed that a historical Jesus did in fact exist and was the background to the Gospel stories. As of 2010, there are only a handful (I know of possibly two or three) that deny that Jesus existed. I see no reason to believed that in just about 20 years, scholars began denying Jesus and then decided to retract that believe and accept a historical Jesus did exist. The quote above is baseless.
and it [Christianity] is to-day the greatest enemy of knowledge, of freedom, of social and industrial improvement, and of the genuine brotherhood of mankind.
Here we have a clear sign of the authors bias. This does not discredit him, but it does mean that we have to take what he says with a grain of salt.
We are told that Mark was written some time after the year 70, Luke about 110, Matthew about 130, and John not earlier than 140 A.D. Let me impress upon you that these dates are conjectural, and that they are made as early as possible.
The only time that the author has even relatively right is that Mark was written around 70 C.E. However, that is not the earliest possible date that have been assigned. Some traditional Christian scholarship puts the writing a full 20 years earlier. Luke and Matthew are dated closer to 80-90 C.E. and John around 90-95 C.E.
There is possibly a fragment of Mark that was discovered at Qumran among the Dead Sea Scrolls. It is labeled 7Q5; however, as it has not been proven to be a fragment of Mark, it can be ignored. It is important though in the sense that since 1922, we have had to large finds: the Dead Sea Scrolls and the Nag Hammadi Library.
The earliest extant fragment of a canonical New Testament Text is papyrus P52 (
Rylands Library Papyrus P52 - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia). It is 125 C.E., plus or minus 25 years. This puts a record of John (which this papyrus contains) at earliest, 100 C.E. That is just a mere 10-15 years after the Gospel was written. Again, this is information that the writer did not have available to him either.
This author simply did not have our current resources available to him, and thus did not have the best handle on the dating. I'm not covering this too much as the dates that I posted are nearly universally accepted by scholars, and I think most on this forum also accept those dates.
The only earlier mention of any of the Gospels was made by Theopholis of Antioch, who mentioned the Gospel of John in 180 A.D.
This is not actually true. We know that Papias of Hierapolis mentioned Mark earlier (he actually accredited Mark with the writing of that Gospel. As he died around 155 C.E. we know he mentioned it before 180.
the only sources of authority as to the existence of Christ-
Here he is talking of the Gospels. However, again, he is wrong. Paul mentions Jesus around 50-60 C.E.
How can Gospels which were not written until a hundred and fifty years after Christ is supposed to have died
Again, quite wrong. Mark was around 70 C.E. The earliest extent fragment of the Gospels is 125 C.E. plus or minus 25 years. Still, at latest, earlier than a hundred and fifty years.
Christ is supposed to have been a Jew, and his disciples are said to have been Jewish fishermen. His language, and the language of his followers must, therefore, have been Aramaic--the popular language of Palestine in that age. But the Gospels are written in Greek--every one of them
This is actually logical. Greek was a major language. It was the language spoken in the larger cities. Jesus may have even spoken some Greek as it was most likely necessary if he worked in Sepphoris, which the dominant language would have been Greek.
We know Jews around that time were speaking Greek. That is why we have a Greek translation of the Hebrew scriptures called the LXX. So it is not illogical that the Gospels were written in Greek, as that was a common language during that time, and we know that many Jews knew how to read it. So many that it was deemed necessary to translate the Hebrew scriptures into Greek. Even some of the Dead Sea Scrolls were written in Greek.
but the city of his birth and youth and manhood existed, so far as we know, only on the map of mythology
Here he is talking about the village of Nazareth. The problem is that we know that Nazareth existed. We have archeological evidence that it did in fact exist. One source should be enough:
2,000-Year-Old Home Found in Jesus' Hometown - World Watch - CBS News This was reported in many different sources.
the four Gospels maintain an unbroken silence with regard to thirty years of the life of their hero. What is the meaning of this silence?
The life of Augustus, was much the same. Augustus himself begins talking of his life not until much later. His birth story was similar to that of Jesus. Then we have nothing. The fact is, it was common in ancient times to not mention individuals until they became important. We see what we would expect to see with Jesus.
The Romans were the greatest lawyers the world had ever known. Their courts were models of order and fairness. A man was not condemned without a trial; he was not handed to the executioner before being found guilty.
The problem is that we have evidence that the Romans massacred religious leaders and their followers on many different occasions. Josephus actually tells us this. There is one story Josephus tells of where over 500 Jews were crucified in one day, in order to terrorize the city, and there ended up being no wood left for the purpose.
More so though, it was because of Pilate's harsh reaction against a Samaritan messianic movement that he was even recalled to Rome. The fact is, the Romans were not always fair. And we know Pilate certainly wasn't.
Yet Paul acknowledges that he never saw Jesus; and his Epistles prove that he knew nothing about his life, his works, or his teachings.
And here we get again to the tired argument. That since Paul mentions little about Jesus in his Epistles, he must not have known anything about Paul. The fact is, Paul mentions little about himself in the Epistles. So does that mean he knew nothing of himself? Not at all.
Here is the problem. The Epistles are letters. These letters were written for very specific reasons. They were to answer questions and address problems that arose after Paul had visited a church. The key point, after he had already visited that church.
Paul was preaching in different areas. We don't have any of his messages that he actually preached to these audiences. Instead, we have records of later follow up with these audiences. Again, it was follow up. Meaning he had already taught these individuals something.
Also, we don't even have all of the letters that Paul wrote. We are missing some. What they contain, we can not know for sure. We can only be sure that we are missing some. L. Michael White goes in depth about this in his book From Jesus to Christianity.
It is illogical to assume that Paul knew little about Jesus because we don't see them in his letters. The reason being that the letters were serving specific reasons. To answer questions that were arising in the churches he had already preached in.
Paul does mention certain ideas about Jesus though. That he was born of the flesh. That he was crucified. And that he had a brother. That enough shows that he in fact believed that Jesus existed.
Miracles do not happen. Stories of miracles are untrue. Therefore, documents in which miraculous accounts are interwoven with reputed facts, are untrustworthy
We are talking about the first century. Miracles were much more common. Even today, if we look at some places in India and Asia, we see so called miracles.
The earliest accounts of magic tricks that we have were considered miracles. Simply, they didn't know better.