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ex wife wanted half his divinity in the divorce.
She probaly died.
Ya think!
Yep. You got anything other then that for an answer?
It is hinted he was in Matt. 8:14:yes:
peters wifes mother
The hint is, it could be Jesus' Mother in law also.
There's an ambiguous use of pronouns in the KJV. There's no explanation why Jesus's mother-in-law would be in Peter's house. So it seems more reasonable to interpret autos (translated "his" in KJV) penthera (wife's mother, mother in law) to refer to Peter, since his is the more recent noun used in the sentence prior to the pronoun "his" pertinent to the possession of a mother in law.peters wifes mother
doppelgänger;2598716 said:There's an ambiguous use of pronouns in the KJV. There's no explanation why Jesus's mother-in-law would be in Peter's house. So it seems more reasonable to interpret autos (translated "his" in KJV) penthera (wife's mother, mother in law) to refer to Peter, since his is the more recent noun used in the sentence prior to the pronoun "his" pertinent to the possession of a mother in law.
That's pretty speculative. More likely there wouldn't have been the development of the creepy fascination with having to imagine Jesus as forever chaste had one of the authors written a wife into the story, and thus no arbitrary agenda that would require editing it out.jesus mother in law would have been edited out if it was so.
doppelgänger;2598716 said:There's an ambiguous use of pronouns in the KJV. There's no explanation why Jesus's mother-in-law would be in Peter's house. So it seems more reasonable to interpret autos (translated "his" in KJV) penthera (wife's mother, mother in law) to refer to Peter, since his is the more recent noun used in the sentence prior to the pronoun "his" pertinent to the possession of a mother in law.
doppelgänger;2598723 said:That's pretty speculative. More likely there wouldn't have been the development of the creepy fascination with having to imagine Jesus as forever chaste had one of the authors written a wife into the story, and thus no arbitrary agenda that would require editing it out.
I heard it on History channel (I think, can't remember) that there was an opinion that the wedding in Canaan was Jesus' own. Whether or not this is a widely held view, I don't really know. I thought it was an interesting idea, but if so, why would they write Jesus was invited? He would have obviously been invited to his own wedding.
However, I believe he would have been married. An unmarried Jewish male at 30 years old in the first millennium (who wasn't an Essene) would probably have drawn a few eyebrows. It would raise a few eyebrows today for someone to be a single virgin at 30 years old in today's society.
I have no idea how you (Awoon) get Jesus being married from Matthew 8:14 though.
How did you get this idea?
True, but the grammatical convention of using possessive pronouns to refer to the most recent person mentioned before the pronoun supports that it is probably meant to be a reference to Peter and not Jesus.Many scriptures in the Bible just start off on a subject or introduce characters without explaining any past.
Many scriptures in the Bible just start off on a subject or introduce characters without explaining any past.