Is this another intentional, ethnocentric, racist comment?
All Americans who are not Native Americans are emigrants or emigrant descent. I know Spanish speaking Americans who can trace their roots to Geronimos band, and most of the Southern US spoke Spanish before English. There are many US citizens born in the US whose first language is Spanish. Have you ever been in Miami, Puerto Rico, Los Angeles, and other places where Spanish is spoken in large percentages?
Why do you continue to insinuate that I'm racist? That simply is low, and shows very negatively upon you. More so, attacking me doesn't make your point stronger. It takes away from it.
Yes, not all Americans are Native Americans. However, new immigrants have different cultural backgrounds. That is what I was referring to. Who in the United States name their kids Jesus? People who have either a Spanish or Mexican background. Thus, their cultural background is different. That is what I have been saying. The United States has various social norms. One of those is not to name their kids Jesus out of respect (or even confusion). Immigrants (and it should have been obvious that I was talking about new immigrants) still hold onto their cultural backgrounds (more so than immigrants who moved here a hundred years ago). Thus, their culture influences name choice. That is what I have been explaining.
Just because some people do not have good command of the English language does not mean that goat offspring is a respectful way to refer to children.
Yes, context is very important. That is one of the ways in which I can assess the knowledge, cognitive abilities, and other skills of the person with whom I am communicating-I put it in context.
You need a dictionary. Kid does not solely refer to goats. For someone who insinuates that you have a good command of the English language, you certainly don't show it.
As for you putting things in context, you don't. I've shown over and over again where you take what I say out of context. The fact that you would claim that I'm calling children the offspring of goats, clearly show that.
Again, pick up a dictionary, and look up the word kid. The first entry, in most cases, states that kid is an informal term for children (when using the definition of noun). Thus, I'm not being disrespectful by using the term kid. I'm using an informal term; however, we are in an informal forum. Thus, you have no point and are just making ignorant statements.
When you contradict yourself saying, The term Jesus did not come from the Hebrew. Yes, Yeshua was Hebrew (or Aramaic) did you mean to say that it did not come from Hebrew, but from Hebrew?
When you say, Hebrew (or Aramaic) do you mean you do not know which or that you equate the two?
There term Jesus is the English equivalent to the Greek transliteration). Jesus is not a Hebrew term. Yeshua is a Hebrew term, or Aramaic term. Now, I don't equate Hebrew with Aramaic. Aramaic is a dialect of Hebrew, that was the common language of first century Palestinian Jews. I put Aramaic in parenthesis in order to show that Yeshua was probably more Aramaic, but since you have been using the term Hebrew, I wanted to also make sure you understood. Thus, I used the word Hebrew, as that is the word that has been being used. I simply qualified my statement by adding Aramaic.
There is no contradiction. You just need to take the time to read what I say instead of misconstruing it.
Since Hebrew and Aramaic are two different and distinct languages, I am wondering if you refer to the two as synonymous because of the custom of calling the OT, the Hebrew Aramaic Scriptures.
For someone who has just a grand command of the English language, you definitely don't show it. I never said that they were synonymous. More so, I have never called the OT the Hebrew Aramaic scriptures. I either called it the OT, or the Hebrew Scriptures (which even though a small part is written in Aramaic, it is perfectly write to call it the Hebrew scripture. Hebrew refers to more than just a language).
You might be interested in knowing that parts of the Torah are written in Aramaic and some in Hebrew and that there is no such thing as a Hebrew Aramaic language. That common mistake is made by people with enough knowledge to generate ideas and utter statements and not enough knowledge to assess the validity of their ideas and statements.
You might be interested to know that I'm currently going to college for religious studies. I have taken an introductory course in Hebrew, and I have taken several course on the Hebrew scripture.
What you are doing here is trying to attack my knowledge my making it seem like I said something I didn't. You assume I don't know anything about how the OT was written, even though we really haven't discussed that. Instead, you imply that I'm ignorant, and try to give me a lesson on something you have never shown much reliability on. And then you insult me by saying that I don't have enough knowledge to assess the validity of my ideas.
Basically, you made a ridiculous statement, have shown very little regards for being honest, and have shown yourself as someone who, if they can't actually argue a point, will insult and attack the messenger.
I am getting the impression that you might know less Hebrew, Aramaic, Greek, Latin, and perhaps any other language except some English than you are pretending to know.
What languages am I pretending to know? I speak English, that is clear. Why? Because I'm using English to write this. I have never stated that I know Aramaic, Greek, Latin, or any other language (besides Hebrew, which I have only stated that I took an introductory course, and I did that in this post). So you are making an ignorant comment based on something that I never said or implied.
Maybe instead of making ridiculous insults, taking what I say out of context, and misconstruing what I say (which includes making arguments about things I have never implied or stated), you might want to form a logical argument to defend your position.