The verses are symbolic but it reminds me with the story which says that Judas' spirit (soul) owned the body(flesh) of Jesus and becomes
him in flesh and the one who suffered on the cross was Judas(soul) but the flesh was of Jesus which profiteth nothing, that also may
explain the disappearance of Judas after the crucifixion of Jesus.
The verse is self-explanatory,
John 6:63
It is the spirit that giveth life; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I have spoken unto you are spirit, are are life.
The spirit giveth life, the flesh profiteth nothing.
Ok,, what is "spirit" to you? I really think we are not on the same page here......
John 6:23-53 a symbolic interpretation is not plausible. Throughout these verses, the Greek text uses the word "phago" nine times. "Phago" literally means "to eat" or "physically consume." Like the skeptics of our day, the disciples take issue with Jesus' literal usage of "eat." So Jesus does what?
John 6:54, 56, 57, 58 - He uses an even more literal verb, translated as "trogo," which means to gnaw or chew or crunch. He increases the literalness and drives his message home. Jesus will literally give us His flesh and blood to eat. The word “trogo” is only used two other times in the New Testament (in Matt. 24:38 and John 13:18) and it always means to literally gnaw or chew meat. While “phago” might also have a spiritual application,
"trogo" is never used metaphorically in Greek. So skeptics cannot find one verse in Scripture where "trogo" is used symbolically, and yet this must be their argument if they are going to deny the Catholic understanding of Jesus' words. Moreover, the Jews already knew Jesus was speaking literally even before Jesus used the word “trogo” when they said “How can this man give us His flesh to eat?” (John 6:52).
John 6:55 - to clarify further, Jesus says "For My Flesh is food indeed, and My Blood is drink indeed." This phrase can only be understood as being responsive to those who do not believe that Jesus' flesh is food indeed, and His blood is drink indeed. Further, Jesus uses the word which is translated as "sarx." "Sarx" means flesh (not "soma" which means body). See, for example, John 1:13,14; 3:6; 8:15; 17:2; Matt. 16:17; 19:5; 24:22; 26:41; Mark 10:8; 13:20; 14:38; and Luke 3:6; 24:39 which provides other examples in Scripture where
"sarx" means flesh. It is always literal.
John 6:55 - further, the phrases "real" food and "real" drink use the word "alethes." "Alethes" means "really" or "truly," and would only be used if there were doubts concerning the reality of Jesus' flesh and blood as being food and drink. Thus, Jesus is emphasizing the miracle of His body and blood being actual food and drink.
John 6:60 - as are many skeptics today, Jesus' disciples are scandalized by these words. They even ask, "Who can 'listen' to it (much less understand it)?" To the unillumined mind, it seems grotesque.
John 6:61-63 - Jesus acknowledges their disgust. Jesus' use of the phrase "the spirit gives life" means
the disciples need supernatural faith, not logic, to understand His words.
John 3:6 - Jesus often used the comparison of "spirit versus flesh" to teach about the necessity of possessing supernatural faith versus a natural understanding. In Mark 14:38 Jesus also uses the "spirit/flesh" comparison. The spirit is willing but the flesh is weak. We must go beyond the natural to understand the supernatural. In 1 Cor. 2:14,3:3; Rom 8:5; and Gal. 5:17, Paul also uses the "spirit/flesh" comparison to teach that unspiritual people are not receiving the gift of faith. They are still "in the flesh."
John 6:63 -skeptics often argue that Jesus' use of the phrase "the spirit gives life" shows that Jesus was only speaking symbolically. However, they must explain why
there is not one place in Scripture where "spirit" means "symbolic." As we have seen, the use of "spirit" relates to supernatural faith. What words are spirit and life? The words that we must eat Jesus' flesh and drink His blood, or we have no life in us.
John 6:66-67 - many disciples leave Jesus, rejecting this literal interpretation that we must eat His flesh and drink His blood. At this point, these disciples really thought Jesus had lost His mind. If they were wrong about the literal interpretation, why wouldn't Jesus, the Great Teacher, have corrected them?
Why didn't Jesus say, "Hey, come back here, I was only speaking symbolically!"? Because they understood correctly.
Methinks that someone(s) posting here haven't a clue what symbolism is.
Therefor they jump on any opportunity to defame the faith and beliefs of other.
Ohhhhhhhhhhhh, the people that take a sentence out of context and build an
entire pseudo science out of it.
(in case a few ignorant that don't know what pseudo is)
pseu·do1
/ˈso͞odō/
adjective
- not genuine; sham:
NO INSULT MEANT! I'm far to righteous to do such a thing.
(yeesh. That last even made me sick.)
John 6:64,70 - Jesus ties the disbelief in the Real Presence of His Body and Blood in the Eucharist to Judas' betrayal. Those who don't believe in this miracle betray Him.
Psalm 27:2; Isa. 9:20; 49:26; Mic. 3:3; 2 Sam. 23:17; Rev. 16:6; 17:6, 16 - to further dispense with the claim that Jesus was only speaking symbolically, these verses demonstrate that symbolically eating body and blood is always used in a negative context of a physical assault. It always means “destroying an enemy,” not becoming intimately close with him. Thus, if Jesus were speaking symbolically in John 6:51-58, He would be saying to us, "He who reviles or assaults me has eternal life." This, of course, is absurd.
Well, first of all there are some who teach they eat Jesus because the ' bread and wine ' become Jesus.( sounds like repulsive cannibalism )
Please keep in mind that John chapter 6 is about Jesus addressing Jewish crowds.
According to Matthew 13:34 Jesus would Not address the crowds without an illustration. ( Not literal but a parable )
Jesus wasn't speaking in parables, metaphors or symbols in John 6, He was speaking plainly and literally.
John 6:4 - Jesus is in Capernaum on the eve of Passover, and the lambs are gathered to be slaughtered and eaten. Look what He says.
John 6:35,41,48,51 - Jesus says FOUR TIMES: "I AM the bread from heaven." It is He, Himself, the eternal bread from heaven.
John 6:27,31,49 - there is a parallel between the manna in the desert which was physically consumed, and this "new" bread which must be consumed.
The crowds were already getting disappointed with Jesus - John 6:15 - because Jesus turned down their opportunity to make him a king ( ruler ) on Earth.
The verse, nor the chapter, nor the entire book says anything about the crowds being disappointed. But many walked away in John 6:66 because they refused to believe.
Also, please keep in mind the setting. John chapter 6 is Not the last supper setting or time frame, but one year earlier before that supper.
According to who?