But more so than that, the first century Christians who were Jewish and who wrote certain Chistian Bible books (or at least I thought that they wrote those book) conveyed the Torah law as being so burdensome and so cumbersome that people were saying the Torah law is done with and had its purpose and praise God that he put an end to it and replaced it with something superior. Even some of Jesus' words seem to say that like at
Matthew 5:38-39:
Or at least it's thought of as being superior.
Although, I will admit that I'm not really sure what Jesus was actually saying.
However, more confusing is that when looking up Christian Bible verses where Jesus referred to the Torah law, but replaced or recommended it with something different, I came across an article that said:
click here:
Christ's relationship to Old Testament Law, part one | Article | whig.com
Therefore, the verses from the Tanakh at Jeremiah 31:31-32 seem to really throw a monkey wrench in the machine.
So, does any Torah Mosheh Jew or Orthodox Jew have an interpretation of Jeremiah 31:31-32?