In my opinion you contradict yourself here, you say in the hadith the man gave his allegiance pledge to Muhammad, in which case Muhammad had the authority to break it.
Also, if Muhammad had no authority to speak for Allah why did Muhammad break the pledge in the end?
Hello, Daniel.
There is no contradiction here.
The pledge was given to the Prophet (sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam) ‘for Islam’. In other words, he was merely a witness. It is by this witnessed pledge that the Bedouin became a Muslim.
I did not say that the Prophet (sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam) had no authority to speak for Allāh (subḥānahu ūta'āla). I said he had no authority to grant the Bedouin’s request; to negate the promises this man had made; promises given, ultimately, to Allāh (subḥānahu ūta'āla) Himself. That is quite a different matter.
Please do not twist my words. This is the act one bereft of argument.
Muhammed did not ‘break the pledge’. He merely allowed an apostate to leave Medina unharmed (‘There is no compulsion in religion’). The pledge was broken by the Bedouin himself.
Peace.
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