• Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:
    • Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
    • Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
    • Access to private conversations with other members.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!

?Lesbianism?

VEW

Member
Where does it specifically state in scripture that a woman cannot lay with another woman as she does a man?

Romans 1:24-27 "God, in keeping with the desires of their hearts, gave them up to uncleanness, that their bodies might be dishonored among them...God gave them up to disgraceful sexual appetites, for both their females changed the natural us of themselves into one contrary to nature; (The inspired Bible writer did not have to explain to married persons the natural way in which the reproductive organs of husband and wife complement each other. Homosexual relations obviously cannot follow this natural way. So, male and female homosexuals employ other forms of intercourse in what the apostle refers to as the satisfying of "disgraceful sexual appetites" and "obscene" practices.) ........

So What is the attitude of true Christians toward those who have a history of homosexuality?

1 Cor. 6:9-11: "Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men kept for unnatural purposes, nor men who lie with men . . . will inherit God’s kingdom. And yet that is what some of you were. But you have been washed clean, but you have been sanctified, but you have been declared righteous in the name of our Lord Jesus Christ and with the spirit of our God." (Regardless of such a background, if persons now abandon their former unclean practices, apply Jehovah’s righteous standards, and exercise faith in his provision for forgiveness of sins through Christ, they can enjoy a clean standing before God. After reforming, they may be welcomed in the Christian congregation.)

True Christians know that even deeply rooted wrong desires, including those that may have a genetic basis or that involve physical causes or environmental factors, are not insurmountable for persons who truly want to please Jehovah. Some people are by nature highly emotional. Perhaps in the past they gave free rein to fits of anger; but knowledge of God’s will, the desire to please him, and the help of his spirit enable them to develop self-control. A person may be an alcoholic, but, with proper motivation, he can refrain from drinking and thus avoid becoming a drunkard. Likewise, a person may feel strongly attracted to others of the same sex, but by heeding the counsel of God’s Word he can remain clean from homosexual practices. (See Ephesians 4:17-24.)

Jehovah does not allow us to go on thinking that wrong conduct really makes no difference; he kindly but firmly warns us of the consequences and provides abundant help for those who want to "strip off the old personality with its practices, and clothe [themselves] with the new personality."—Col. 3:9, 10.........

This same principal also applies to persons like myself...Though I am attracted to the opposite sex, I have not been able to find a sutable mate for marriage...........Therefore, to keep in line with Jehovah's requirements, I refrain from sexual practices.....It is possible to learn self-control. No one ever said that it would be easy.......VEW
 

S-word

Well-Known Member
Where does it specifically state in scripture that a woman cannot lay with another woman as she does a man?

Romans 1:24-27 "God, in keeping with the desires of their hearts, gave them up to uncleanness, that their bodies might be dishonored among them...God gave them up to disgraceful sexual appetites, for both their females changed the natural us of themselves into one contrary to nature; (The inspired Bible writer did not have to explain to married persons the natural way in which the reproductive organs of husband and wife complement each other. Homosexual relations obviously cannot follow this natural way. So, male and female homosexuals employ other forms of intercourse in what the apostle refers to as the satisfying of "disgraceful sexual appetites" and "obscene" practices.) ........

So What is the attitude of true Christians toward those who have a history of homosexuality?

1 Cor. 6:9-11: "Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men kept for unnatural purposes, nor men who lie with men . . . will inherit God’s kingdom. And yet that is what some of you were. But you have been washed clean, but you have been sanctified, but you have been declared righteous in the name of our Lord Jesus Christ and with the spirit of our God." (Regardless of such a background, if persons now abandon their former unclean practices, apply Jehovah’s righteous standards, and exercise faith in his provision for forgiveness of sins through Christ, they can enjoy a clean standing before God. After reforming, they may be welcomed in the Christian congregation.)

True Christians know that even deeply rooted wrong desires, including those that may have a genetic basis or that involve physical causes or environmental factors, are not insurmountable for persons who truly want to please Jehovah. Some people are by nature highly emotional. Perhaps in the past they gave free rein to fits of anger; but knowledge of God’s will, the desire to please him, and the help of his spirit enable them to develop self-control. A person may be an alcoholic, but, with proper motivation, he can refrain from drinking and thus avoid becoming a drunkard. Likewise, a person may feel strongly attracted to others of the same sex, but by heeding the counsel of God’s Word he can remain clean from homosexual practices. (See Ephesians 4:17-24.)

Jehovah does not allow us to go on thinking that wrong conduct really makes no difference; he kindly but firmly warns us of the consequences and provides abundant help for those who want to "strip off the old personality with its practices, and clothe [themselves] with the new personality."—Col. 3:9, 10.........

This same principal also applies to persons like myself...Though I am attracted to the opposite sex, I have not been able to find a sutable mate for marriage...........Therefore, to keep in line with Jehovah's requirements, I refrain from sexual practices.....It is possible to learn self-control. No one ever said that it would be easy.......VEW


A good post friend vew, and although I agree with you in many respects, I would never condemn them or try to make them change their ways, which would only drive them away from me, who may, simply, by the example of the wonderfull 45 year union of the wife and myself, encourage them to look at other avenues through which to walk their life. And I would pray and do pray daily that the Lord will give them the time and the opportunities and desire to make that change.
 

sandy whitelinger

Veteran Member
If this has been debated before I can't seem to find it.

Where does it specifically state in scripture that a woman cannot lay with another woman as she does a man?
I suppose you could look at it this way, the only acceptable sexual behaviour that is described in Scripture is between a man and a woman within the confines of marriage.
 
IIRC, Greek grammar differentiates between between male and female nouns. If you go back to the original text of the Epistles, you'll likely find that the words that are translated into English as "homosexuals" or "homosexual offenders" refer to only one gender.

I find that statement to be utterly ridiculous seeing as though the term 'homosexual' was not coined until 1839.
 
Last edited:
There is a law that states that you shall not prostitute your daughters. Here we see that she allowed herself to be given in marriage as a virgin when she was not. She paid for that lie dearly. The man she married bought her from her husband by way of paying the duty of a virgin. He was robbed from what he thought he had purchased and someone had to pay. She deviled her fathers house because she lived there under his roof and went and had sex without his permission. Now if she lived alone and had no man over her, or she be a widow, or the father gives his permission for her to do her own will as to this issue then she is free to have sex with whoever she pleases. Even a married man because a man can. And even another woman for there are no laws in Torah that speaks to this.

So is the real sin here someone paying for something they did not get..or disgracing her father..?
 

Luminous

non-existential luminary
Romans 1:26-27: "For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompense of their error which was meet."

The bible says homosexuality is an abomination. In the verse where it says, "even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature", it then says "and likewise also" pertaining to the homosexual actions of men. In other words, the lust and actions that the men were having with other men were the same unnatural sexual actions (in like manner) as the lust and actions that the women were having with women.
Where does it say "with each other"? all it says is that they were sodomites. please tell god to clear his throat a bit next time he tells one ONE weirdo of his "word" that way its not all that Bull****y.
When you do not understand nature then you become hateful of it and make up lies.
that is what the writers/editors/composer/and sanctioners of the various bibles did.
truely, to be a true christian you must first be an orthodox jew. you should be all cosher and slave advocating.
when you cherry-pick the bible; you get out of it what you want.
Let God come itself and show me the truth, for your words and the words of an idol mean nothing.
 
Last edited:

White Tiger

New Member
If this has been debated before I can't seem to find it.

Where does it specifically state in scripture that a woman cannot lay with another woman as she does a man?
Try Rom.1.24-32. The necessary inference is that lesbian activity is a vile passion, leading to a reprobate mind,ASV; resulting in (spiritual) death.
We are bound, are we not, by command, approved example, and necessary inference?
 

Autodidact

Intentionally Blank
Try Rom.1.24-32. The necessary inference is that lesbian activity is a vile passion, leading to a reprobate mind,ASV; resulting in (spiritual) death.
We are bound, are we not, by command, approved example, and necessary inference?

Take a wild guess, White Tiger--what religion do you think the OP is?
 

Realist

Agnostic theist
Romans 1:26-27: "For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompense of their error which was meet."

The bible says homosexuality is an abomination. In the verse where it says, "even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature", it then says "and likewise also" pertaining to the homosexual actions of men. In other words, the lust and actions that the men were having with other men were the same unnatural sexual actions (in like manner) as the lust and actions that the women were having with women.

I agree with your view. Those verses make it clear when it comes to the men and how they were doing unnatural things which is all "against nature" means. The word likewise means "in the same way" so you have to take both ideas or statements that are being connected by the word likewise and understand them in the same way. The part of the verse about women is general or vague but the part about the men is very specific. So if you wanted to understand what the vague or general part was referring to, it would be reasonable to refer to the more specific part of the verse since they're referring to the same thing which is indicated by the word "likewise". How were men doing unnatural things or things against their nature? By being with other men or same-sex relations in other words. How would you explain the previous part of the verse about women in the same way as what the other connected part of the verse (which spoke about men) which is required due to the word "likewise"? That would be women being with women or same-sex relations in other words.
 
Last edited:
Top