Consider the scenario, a manager (worker) invests $1,000 in raw materials, tools, etc. to create a product. He hires a Labor (worker) to turn those raw materials into the desired product. At this point the product now has a value of $2,000. The manager tries to sell the product at $3,000, but nobody buys the product at that cost and he can only sell it for the $2,000 it cost to make. You are saying the labor (worker) should get the $1,000 for the increased value and the manager/worker should not only get no pay, but lose the $1,000 initial investment required to make it all happen; is this your point? If so, does this sound fair to you?By intervene, I mean whatever work is done by the worker on the product. Some given product had a value before his work, and then it has another value after his work. This is the extra value generated by his work.
I said nothing about the employee being responsible for not generating value. Why can't you answer the question as asked? Why do you gotta keep adding this nonsense to the scenario?As I have stated multiple times already: if the employee is the one responsible for his work not generating value, sure