Nimos
Well-Known Member
Im not sure I understand what you mean?Now, let's think about a bat used by an agent, Bob, to hit a baseball that breaks a window.
1) Bob broke the window with a bat.
2) Bob broke the window with a baseball.
Notice how sentence (1) would be an odd way to describe the event, but sentence (2) would not. When I say "odd", I don't mean impossible. You can think of contexts in which (1) might be used, but you have to put your mind to work to do that.
When you say sentence (1) would be an odd way to say it, but not impossible, what does that have to do with the event you described? When it is wrong.
"Let's think about a bat used by an agent, Bob, to hit a baseball that breaks a window."
I mean, sure it's not impossible, but I don't see anyone saying that, because it doesn't describe what happened, the only reason I can see why someone would do it, is if they are lying.
For instance, my brother once kicked a football through a window. If we should do the same with that, we could write it like this:
"My brother once broke a window with a kick"
It is a completely different event compared to what actually happened.
We would use this if the action was different and Bob smashed the window with a bat, there is no mention of the baseball in sentences (1)Normally, we would use (1), because instrumental noun phrases like with a baseball describe the proximal effect that caused the window to break.
The bat is under Bob's control, but it might have been a bad swing, causing the baseball to fly in the wrong direction. But also if it is baseball, there is a person pitching (I think it is called) why wouldn't he be under control of the baseball when he is the one throwing it at Bob?The bat is under Bob's control, and so is the ball.
Again I might misunderstand you, I understand the "chains of causation", but not sure what it has to do with linguistics and how that is related to free will?