No, that is not my contention, because if God prevented all the suffering He possibly could, God would prevent all suffering.
That is why I asked:
Can you explain
why omnibenevolence would mean having the intent to bring an immediate end to
all of suffering?
So can you explain why you think that omnibenevolence would bring an immediate end to
all of suffering?
I believe that omnibenevolence might prevent
some suffering if we pray to God to alleviate our suffering, and there are even Baha'i prayers for that purpose. For example, here is an excerpt from a longer prayer:
"Thou hast shown me the right way and caused me to enter the ark of deliverance. O God! Keep me steadfast and make me firm and staunch. Protect me from violent tests and preserve and shelter me in the strongly fortified fortress of Thy Covenant and Testament."
Baha'i Prayers (English): O compassionate God! Thanks be to Thee for Thou hast awakened and made me conscious.
www.bahaiprayers.org
But notice it asks God to protect us from violent tests, not from all tests.
Yes.
I do not believe it is benevolent to prevent all suffering since some suffering is beneficial for humans to learn and grow spiritually and build their character.
Here is why some suffering is beneficial. There are
two reasons:
“While a man is happy he may forget his God; but when grief comes and sorrows overwhelm him, then will he remember his Father who is in Heaven, and who is able to deliver him from his humiliations.
Men who suffer not, attain no perfection. The plant most pruned by the gardeners is that one which, when the summer comes, will have the most beautiful blossoms and the most abundant fruit. “